ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
- B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
- C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
- D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serous drainage at the incision site
- B. Temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F)
- C. Heart rate 92/min
- D. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) indicates a potential infection and should be reported to the provider. Elevated temperature postoperatively is often a sign of infection or inflammation, which can delay healing and increase the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider. Serous drainage at the incision site is expected in the initial postoperative period as part of the normal healing process, a heart rate of 92/min can be a normal response to surgery due to stress or pain, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is also within normal limits for most clients.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will decrease my potassium intake while taking this medication.
- B. I will need to take medication for the rest of my life.
- C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
- D. I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with hypertension should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which can raise potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect as decreasing potassium intake is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as not all clients with hypertension need to take medication for life. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice does not significantly impact hypertension management.
4. A client in end-stage osteoporosis is reporting severe pain, with a respiratory rate of 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be the highest priority to administer to the client?
- A. Promethazine
- B. Hydromorphone
- C. Ketorolac
- D. Amitriptyline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with severe pain like the one described, the priority medication to administer is a potent analgesic like hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is a strong opioid pain medication that can effectively manage severe pain. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not a pain medication. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is contraindicated in end-stage renal disease due to its potential to cause kidney damage. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.
5. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
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