Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
• B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
• C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
• D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

2. A client who has a new prescription for alendronate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
• B. I should take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• C. I should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid taking this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication." This statement indicates understanding because clients taking alendronate should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water after waking up, not before breakfast. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken separately from antacids.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

4. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about clients designating a health care proxy. Which of the following information should the charge nurse include?

• A. The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so
• B. The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises
• C. The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia
• D. The proxy should manage legal issues for the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the health care proxy can make treatment decisions for the client if the client is under anesthesia. This aligns with the concept of durable power of attorney for health care, where the proxy is authorized to make health care decisions when the client is unable to do so. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the proxy should make health care decisions only when the client is unable to do so. Choice B is incorrect as financial decisions are not typically within the scope of a health care proxy. Choice D is incorrect as managing legal issues is not the primary role of a health care proxy.

5. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

• A. Place the client in a supine position.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Elevate the client's legs when in bed.
• D. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

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