Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
• B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
• C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
• D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?

• A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer IV antibiotics prophylactically.
• C. Change the catheter insertion site every 24 hours.
• D. Monitor the insertion site for redness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
• B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
• C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

4. A client is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep, slow breaths.
• B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication.
• C. Remain with the client and offer reassurance.
• D. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority action for the nurse is to remain with the client and offer reassurance. This helps provide a sense of safety and security, which can aid in reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to take deep, slow breaths (Choice A) can be beneficial but should come after providing immediate support. Administering medication (Choice B) should not be the first intervention unless deemed necessary by the healthcare provider. Encouraging distraction techniques (Choice D) may not be as effective initially as providing direct support and reassurance.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Gastric residual of 200 mL or more
• B. pH of gastric contents is 5.0
• C. Bowel sounds are present in all quadrants
• D. Temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A gastric residual of 200 mL or more indicates delayed gastric emptying, which can be a sign of potential complications such as aspiration or intolerance to the enteral feedings. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. A pH of 5.0 is normal for gastric contents, bowel sounds in all quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal motility, and a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range.

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