Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
• B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
• C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
• D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

2. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.

3. A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Administer a bolus feeding over 10 minutes.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• D. Position the client on the left side during feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Low back pain
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Tachycardia can indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction, a severe and life-threatening complication of blood transfusion. The nurse should report tachycardia immediately to prevent further complications. Low back pain, flushed skin, and headache are also important to monitor during a blood transfusion, but they are not as indicative of a severe transfusion reaction as tachycardia.

Similar Questions