ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Dry skin.
- C. Cold intolerance.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia. In clients with hyperthyroidism, tachycardia is a common finding due to the increased metabolic rate. Weight loss and heat intolerance are also expected due to the elevated metabolism. Choices A, B, and C (Weight gain, dry skin, cold intolerance) are not typical findings in hyperthyroidism, as the condition is associated with an overactive thyroid gland leading to an increase in metabolic functions.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Platelet count
- C. INR
- D. WBC count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern for patients on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This imbalance is a common concern because potassium plays a vital role in various physiological functions, including maintaining proper heart function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loop diuretics typically do not cause hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, or hypercalcemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
- B. 1+ pitting edema
- C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.
5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer glucagon
- B. Provide oral glucose
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Monitor blood sugar levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing oral glucose is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia. Oral glucose helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, making it the preferred treatment for mild hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon (Choice A) is usually reserved for severe cases when the patient cannot take anything by mouth. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice D) is important but providing glucose is the immediate priority to treat hypoglycemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access