Nursing Elites

1. Mrs. Pichay who is for thoracentesis is assigned by the nurse to any of the following positions, EXCEPT:

• A. straddling a chair with arms and head resting on the back of the chair
• B. lying on the unaffected side with the bed elevated 30-40 degrees
• C. lying prone with the head of the bed lowered 15-30 degrees
• D. sitting on the edge of the bed with her feet supported and arms and head on a padded overhead table

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

2. Can soluble fibers be fermented by gut bacteria?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Soluble fibers can indeed be fermented by gut bacteria in the large intestine, leading to the production of beneficial short-chain fatty acids. This fermentation process is important for gut health and provides various health benefits. Therefore, the statement is true. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the known scientific fact that soluble fibers can be broken down by gut bacteria through fermentation.

3. Integrated management for childhood illness is the universal protocol of care endorsed by WHO and is used by different countries worldwide, including the Philippines. In any case that the nurse classifies the child and categorizes the signs and symptoms in the PINK category, you know that this means:

• A. Urgent referral
• B. Antibiotic Management
• C. Home treatment
• D. Outpatient treatment facility is needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a child is classified under the PINK category in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines, it signifies the need for antibiotic management. This category indicates severe signs and symptoms requiring immediate antibiotic treatment to address the underlying infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the PINK category specifically calls for urgent antibiotic management rather than urgent referral, home treatment, or outpatient treatment facility.

4. After reviewing the health and dental histories, the dental hygienist has adequate information to begin dietary counseling with the patient. Providing a standardized, low-carbohydrate menu is sufficient for most patients with a high caries rate.

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Both statements are false. Dietary counseling should be personalized, and a standardized low-carbohydrate menu is not sufficient for all patients.

5. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:

• A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
• B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
• C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
• D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.

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