Nursing Elites

1. A patient taking hormonal contraceptives will soon turn 35 years of age. She is moderately obese and has smoked for 15 years. Which of the following is most important?

• A. Begin an exercise regimen.
• B. Begin smoking cessation.
• C. Begin daily aspirin therapy.
• D. Begin taking a loop diuretic to aid weight loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important action for a patient taking hormonal contraceptives, who is nearing 35 years of age, moderately obese, and has a history of smoking for 15 years, is to begin smoking cessation. Women over 35, especially smokers, are at an increased risk of blood clots and cardiovascular issues when using hormonal contraceptives. Smoking cessation is crucial to reduce this risk. Beginning an exercise regimen may be beneficial for overall health but is not as critical as stopping smoking in this scenario. Daily aspirin therapy or taking a loop diuretic are not indicated in this situation and may not address the primary risk associated with hormonal contraceptives and smoking.

2. A 10-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting wheezing and difficulty breathing. History reveals that both of the child's parents suffer from allergies. Which of the following terms would be used to classify the child?

• A. Desensitized
• B. Atopic
• C. Hyperactive
• D. Autoimmune

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the correct term to classify the child is 'Atopic.' Atopic individuals have a genetic predisposition to developing allergic conditions, as seen in this patient with a family history of allergies. 'Desensitized' refers to reduced sensitivity to an allergen, which is not the case here. 'Hyperactive' relates to an exaggerated response, and 'Autoimmune' involves the immune system attacking its own cells, neither of which accurately describes the child's classification based on the provided history.

3. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?

• A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
• B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
• C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
• D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.

4. A patient is prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for the treatment of infertility. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse's teaching?

• A. This drug induces ovulation by stimulating gonadotropins.
• B. This drug induces ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
• C. This drug suppresses ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
• D. This drug increases progesterone levels, which maintains pregnancy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the nurse's teaching is that clomiphene induces ovulation by stimulating the release of gonadotropins, which in turn stimulate the ovaries. Choice B is incorrect because clomiphene does not induce ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice C is also incorrect as clomiphene does not suppress ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice D is inaccurate as clomiphene does not directly increase progesterone levels to maintain pregnancy.

5. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

• A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
• B. Brain tumor
• C. Cerebral infarction
• D. Multiple sclerosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

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