ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A patient taking hormonal contraceptives will soon turn 35 years of age. She is moderately obese and has smoked for 15 years. Which of the following is most important?
- A. Begin an exercise regimen.
- B. Begin smoking cessation.
- C. Begin daily aspirin therapy.
- D. Begin taking a loop diuretic to aid weight loss.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important action for a patient taking hormonal contraceptives, who is nearing 35 years of age, moderately obese, and has a history of smoking for 15 years, is to begin smoking cessation. Women over 35, especially smokers, are at an increased risk of blood clots and cardiovascular issues when using hormonal contraceptives. Smoking cessation is crucial to reduce this risk. Beginning an exercise regimen may be beneficial for overall health but is not as critical as stopping smoking in this scenario. Daily aspirin therapy or taking a loop diuretic are not indicated in this situation and may not address the primary risk associated with hormonal contraceptives and smoking.
2. When discussing the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with a patient who has a history of coronary artery disease, what should the nurse emphasize?
- A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke.
- B. HRT may increase the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may decrease the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of coronary artery disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT is actually known to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer.
3. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
- A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
- B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
- C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
- D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.
4. A client has been admitted to the hospital with symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which aspect of the client's condition would require priority monitoring?
- A. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels
- B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory compromise
- C. Monitoring for changes in consciousness
- D. Monitoring blood pressure closely
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In Guillain-Barré syndrome, respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory compromise, making it crucial to prioritize monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is important but is secondary to assessing for respiratory compromise in this condition. Changes in consciousness and monitoring blood pressure closely are not typically the priority in Guillain-Barré syndrome.
5. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?
- A. Temporal arteritis
- B. Trigeminal neuralgia
- C. Migraine headache
- D. Cluster headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.
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