Nursing Elites

1. Where does most nutrient digestion and absorption occur?

• A. Large intestine
• B. Small intestine
• C. Stomach
• D. Mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The small intestine is the correct answer. It is the primary site for nutrient digestion and absorption in the digestive system. The small intestine plays a crucial role in breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into forms that can be absorbed by the body. While the large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes, the majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine. The stomach primarily functions in the initial digestion of proteins, and the mouth begins the mechanical breakdown of food through chewing.

2. Each is a characteristic manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG), except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Gingival erythema
• B. Necrosis of interdental papilla
• C. Marasmus
• D. Metallic taste and foul odor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marasmus. Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition and is not a direct manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Choices A, B, and D are all characteristic manifestations of NUG. Gingival erythema, necrosis of interdental papilla, and metallic taste with foul odor are commonly associated with NUG due to the inflammatory and necrotic nature of the condition.

3. Which statement indicates understanding of a low-fiber diet?

• A. I can cut up carrots and celery sticks for my lunch.
• B. I will eat a bran muffin for my mid-morning snack.
• C. I will have oatmeal with skim milk for my breakfast.
• D. I should choose canned peaches for my fruit serving.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because canned peaches are low in fiber compared to the other options provided. Option A contains high-fiber vegetables (carrots and celery), option B includes a bran muffin which is fiber-rich, and option C involves oatmeal which is also a good source of fiber. Therefore, choosing canned peaches aligns with a low-fiber diet.

4. Each of the following accurately describes aspects of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) published by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) except one. Which one is the exception?

• A. The DRIs replace the older recommended daily allowances.
• B. Current DRIs attempt to estimate required nutrients to improve long-term health.
• C. DRIs specifically address individuals whose requirements are affected by a disease state.
• D. The DRIs attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. DRIs do not specifically address individuals with disease states; they are intended for the general healthy population. Choice A is correct because DRIs indeed replace the older recommended daily allowances. Choice B is correct as current DRIs aim to estimate required nutrients to enhance long-term health. Choice D is accurate as DRIs also attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased vital capacity
• B. Dry skin
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Decreased mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malnutrition can lead to a variety of physical and mental symptoms. One common manifestation of malnutrition is a decreased mental status, which includes confusion, lethargy, and cognitive impairment. Dry skin is a typical finding in malnutrition due to the lack of essential nutrients needed for skin health. Heat intolerance is not a direct consequence of malnutrition. While malnutrition can affect respiratory function, it typically leads to decreased vital capacity rather than increased. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased mental status.

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