ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Test Bank
1. Where does most nutrient digestion and absorption occur?
- A. Large intestine
- B. Small intestine
- C. Stomach
- D. Mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The small intestine is the correct answer. It is the primary site for nutrient digestion and absorption in the digestive system. The small intestine plays a crucial role in breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into forms that can be absorbed by the body. While the large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes, the majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine. The stomach primarily functions in the initial digestion of proteins, and the mouth begins the mechanical breakdown of food through chewing.
2. A client is being instructed by a nurse about foods that should be included in a low-fiber diet. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
- A. I can cut up carrots and celery sticks for my lunch.
- B. I will eat a bran muffin for my mid-morning snack.
- C. I will have oatmeal with skim milk for my breakfast.
- D. I should choose canned peaches for my fruit serving.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because canned peaches are lower in fiber compared to the other options. Carrots, celery sticks, bran muffins, and oatmeal are high-fiber choices, which are not suitable for a low-fiber diet. Choosing canned peaches aligns with the requirements of a low-fiber diet.
3. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?
- A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
- B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
- C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
- D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.
4. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?
- A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
- B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
- C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
- D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 90/min.
- B. WBC count 15,000/mm3.
- C. Urinary output 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
- D. Temperature 37.8°C (100°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.