ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Miss CEE is admitted for treatment of major depression. She appears withdrawn, disheveled, and states 'Nobody wants me'. What does the nurse most likely expect that Miss CEE is to be placed on?
- A. Neuroleptics medication
- B. Special diet
- C. Suicide precaution
- D. Anxiolytics medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Given Miss CEE's state of major depression and her expressed feelings of worthlessness ('Nobody wants me'), the nurse would most likely expect her to be placed on suicide precaution. This means that measures would be taken to ensure her safety and to prevent her from harming herself. While medications like neuroleptics (Choice A) and anxiolytics (Choice D) might be employed as part of her overall treatment, these medicines are primarily used for conditions like psychosis and anxiety respectively, not specifically for depression or suicidal ideation. A special diet (Choice B) may be part of a comprehensive treatment plan, but it is not as immediate or as directly related to her current emotional and psychological state as suicide precaution is.
2. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?
- A. Remove the parenteral nutrition solution from the refrigerator 2 hours before infusion.
- B. Remove unused parenteral nutrition after 12 hours of use.
- C. Monitor daily laboratory values and report abnormalities as needed.
- D. Monitor the flow rate of the parenteral nutrition carefully and adjust it if necessary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.
3. A nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy. The nurse verifies the postoperative prescription which reads, 'Discontinue NPO status; advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following are appropriate for the nurse to offer the client? (SATA)
- A. Wheat toast
- B. Applesauce
- C. Applesauce, Chicken broth
- D. Chicken broth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Applesauce and chicken broth. After an appendectomy, patients are typically started on a clear liquid diet before advancing to more solid foods. Applesauce and chicken broth are part of a low-residue diet that is easily digestible and gentle on the digestive system, making them suitable choices for a client following surgery. Wheat toast may be too heavy and fibrous initially, while other solid foods should be introduced gradually to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
4. What type of gastrointestinal complication is most likely to be caused by the use of antibiotics to treat H. pylori infection?
- A. Hemoptysis
- B. Altered taste sensation
- C. Flatulence
- D. Bloody stools
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Altered taste sensation. The use of antibiotics is known to cause changes in taste sensation as a side effect, especially when used to treat H. pylori infections. Hemoptysis (Choice A) refers to coughing up blood, and while it can be a symptom of various conditions, it is not typically associated with the use of antibiotics. Flatulence (Choice C) and bloody stools (Choice D) can also occur as gastrointestinal complications, but they are not the most likely side effect when treating H. pylori with antibiotics. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
5. Each statement is true of vitamin K, except one. Which is the exception?
- A. Vitamin K is produced in the gut.
- B. Vitamin K functions as a catalyst for the synthesis of blood-clotting factors.
- C. Vitamin K maintains prothrombin levels.
- D. Vitamin K absorption increases with high levels of vitamin E supplementation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vitamin K absorption decreases with high levels of vitamin E supplementation because in larger amounts, vitamin E acts as an anticoagulant. Vitamin K is not produced in the gut but can be obtained from food sources or supplements. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of blood-clotting factors and is crucial in maintaining prothrombin levels, which is vital for proper blood clotting. The incorrect choice, D, is misleading as high levels of vitamin E supplementation hinder vitamin K absorption due to its anticoagulant properties. Dental hygienists should be aware of the importance of vitamin K in blood clotting, especially when treating patients who are on anticoagulant medications for conditions like stroke prevention.
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