Nursing Elites

1. Manifestations of Cushing syndrome include:

• A. truncal obesity with thin extremities.
• B. enlargement of face, hands, and feet.
• C. cachexia.
• D. thick scalp hair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestation of Cushing syndrome is truncal obesity with thin extremities. This occurs due to the redistribution of fat to the face, neck, and abdomen, while the arms and legs remain thin. Choice B, enlargement of face, hands, and feet, is more indicative of acromegaly. Choice C, cachexia, refers to extreme weight loss and muscle wasting, which is typically not seen in Cushing syndrome. Choice D, thick scalp hair, is not a typical manifestation of Cushing syndrome.

2. What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before eating or drinking anything other than water. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with milk as it can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

3. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer IV fluids and monitor electrolytes.
• B. Administer antiepileptic medications as prescribed.
• C. Ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation.
• D. Monitor the client for signs of hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.

4. A patient is administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which of the following adverse effects will result in discontinuation of the medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Jaundice
• C. Fever
• D. Arthralgia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Isoniazid (INH) is known to cause hepatotoxicity, which can manifest as jaundice. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect that warrants immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent further liver damage. Weight gain, fever, and arthralgia are not typically associated with isoniazid use and would not necessitate discontinuation of the medication.

5. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

• A. Suprapubic pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Low serum creatinine level
• D. Palpable kidneys

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpable kidneys are a common clinical manifestation in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to the enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with this condition. Periorbital edema is more commonly seen in conditions like nephrotic syndrome. A low serum creatinine level is not a typical finding in renal impairment, as impaired kidneys usually lead to an elevated serum creatinine level.

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