Nursing Elites

1. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

2. A female patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. This medication may cause breakthrough bleeding or spotting.
• B. This medication may cause weight gain.
• C. This medication may increase your risk of developing diabetes.
• D. This medication may increase your risk of breast cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) can cause breakthrough bleeding or spotting, which is a common side effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased risk of diabetes, and increased risk of breast cancer are not commonly associated side effects of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the patient about the potential for breakthrough bleeding or spotting.

3. In a postmenopausal woman, what condition can be prevented by administering estradiol (Estraderm)?

• A. Endometriosis
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Uterine cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osteoporosis. Estradiol, a form of estrogen, is used to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by maintaining bone density. Choice A, Endometriosis, is incorrect as estradiol is not used to prevent or treat this condition. Choice B, Amenorrhea, is not prevented by estradiol but rather may result from hormonal changes. Choice D, Uterine cancer, is not directly prevented by estradiol; in fact, long-term unopposed estrogen use can increase the risk of uterine cancer.

4. Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Rapid, deep breathing
• B. Increased urination
• C. Weakness and confusion
• D. High blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weakness and confusion. Hypoglycemia is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to inadequate glucose supply to the brain, resulting in symptoms like weakness and confusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rapid, deep breathing is not typically a sign of hypoglycemia but can be seen in other conditions like respiratory issues. Increased urination is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus, while high blood pressure is not a typical sign of hypoglycemia.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

• A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
• B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
• C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
• D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

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