Nursing Elites

1. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

2. A nurse is teaching a class about immune deficiencies, and a person from the audience asks which cells are affected by severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome, and the nurse answers:

• A. B cell deficits
• B. T cell deficits
• C. Complement deficits
• D. B and T cell deficits

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: B and T cell deficits. Severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome affects both B and T cells, leading to a severe impairment in the immune system's ability to fight infections. Choice A (B cell deficits) is incorrect because SCID affects not only B cells but also T cells. Choice B (T cell deficits) is incorrect as SCID is characterized by deficits in both B and T cells. Choice C (Complement deficits) is incorrect as SCID primarily involves B and T cell deficiencies rather than complement deficiencies.

3. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

4. In the ED, a homeless client is brought in with severe hypothermia. The police officers also state that they found a 'bottle of booze' on the sidewalk next to him. This puts the nurse on high alert since alcohol contributes to hypothermia by:

• A. interfering with the appetite center in the brain, causing the person to not respond to hunger cues.
• B. causing the person to have less insulation from body fat.
• C. dulling mental awareness, impairing judgment to seek shelter.
• D. increasing the basal metabolic rate, leading to faster depletion of ATP.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alcohol impairs judgment and dulls mental awareness, making a person less likely to seek shelter when experiencing hypothermia. This impaired judgment can lead to risky behaviors that exacerbate the effects of cold exposure. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol does not directly interfere with the appetite center in the brain to the extent described. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol consumption does not directly impact the amount of body fat present. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol does not increase the basal metabolic rate but rather slows it down.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
• C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
• D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.

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