ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. Joseph, a 12-year-old child, complains to the school nurse about nausea and dizziness. While assessing the child, the nurse notices a black eye that looks like an injury. This is the third time in 1 month that the child has visited the nurse. Each time, the child provides vague explanations for various injuries. Which of the following is the school nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Contact the child’s parents and ask about the child’s injuries.
- B. Encourage the child to be honest about the injuries.
- C. Question the teacher about the child's injuries.
- D. Report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The school nurse's priority intervention in this situation is to report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities. Given the pattern of unexplained injuries and vague explanations provided by the child, it raises significant concerns for possible abuse. Reporting to the appropriate authorities is crucial to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Contacting the child's parents (Choice A) may not be appropriate if abuse is suspected, as it could potentially put the child at further risk. Merely encouraging the child to be honest (Choice B) does not address the immediate safety concerns. Questioning the teacher (Choice C) is not the appropriate initial action when abuse is suspected; reporting to authorities should take precedence.
2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.
3. A patient develops itching and burning of the vaginal vault while taking an anti-infective to treat strep throat. What fungal agent has most likely caused the burning and itching?
- A. Cryptococcus neoformans
- B. Candida albicans
- C. Aspergillus
- D. Dermatophytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is a common fungal agent responsible for causing vaginal yeast infections characterized by itching and burning. It is known to overgrow in the vagina, especially when the normal vaginal flora is disrupted, such as during antibiotic use. Cryptococcus neoformans is more associated with causing meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, not vaginal symptoms. Aspergillus is more commonly associated with lung infections and allergic reactions, not vaginal infections. Dermatophytes typically cause skin infections like ringworm, not vaginal symptoms.
4. How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?
- A. It stimulates the growth of red blood cells.
- B. It suppresses T-cell production.
- C. It inhibits protein synthesis.
- D. It stimulates antibody production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.
5. A 22-year-old woman began using oral contraceptives several months ago and has presented for an appointment to discuss recent worrisome changes in her health status. Which of the following changes in the woman's health may the nurse potentially attribute to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Frequent high blood pressure readings
- C. Frequent headaches without aura
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fatigue. Oral contraceptives can sometimes cause fatigue as a side effect. Frequent high blood pressure readings and frequent headaches without aura are less likely to be directly related to the use of oral contraceptives. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of oral contraceptives but are not the changes typically associated with liver function affecting hormone metabolism as in the case of hepatitis C infection.
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