ATI RN
Human Growth and Development Exam 1
1. In the United States, the second leading cause of neonatal mortality is __________, which is largely preventable.
- A. malnutrition
- B. physical abnormality
- C. low birth weight
- D. sudden infant death syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The second leading cause of neonatal mortality in the United States is low birth weight, which is largely preventable through proper prenatal care, nutrition, and health interventions. Low birth weight infants are at higher risk for various health complications and mortality, making it an important issue to address in maternal and child health programs. Malnutrition (choice A) can contribute to low birth weight but is not the direct cause of neonatal mortality. Physical abnormality (choice B) can be a factor in some cases but is not the second leading cause overall. Sudden infant death syndrome (choice D) refers to unexplained deaths of seemingly healthy babies and is not related to low birth weight as a leading cause of neonatal mortality.
2. What is the combat health support system in the field designed to do?
- A. Provide evacuation to the far rear for treatment and delay return to duty
- B. Project, sustain, and protect the health of the soldier in war and operations other than war
- C. Provide rearward evacuation and reassignment
- D. Provide far rear area care and delayed return to duty
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The combat health support system in the field is designed to project, sustain, and protect the health of soldiers in both war and operations other than war. Choice A is incorrect because the system is not primarily focused on providing evacuation to the far rear for treatment, but rather on overall health support. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions rearward evacuation and reassignment, which is a limited scope compared to the comprehensive support provided by the system. Choice D is incorrect as it narrowly focuses on far rear area care and delayed return to duty, missing the broader aspects of health support and protection.
3. The nurse is closely following a patient who began treatment with testosterone several months earlier. When assessing the patient for potential adverse effects of treatment, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
- A. Skin inspection for developing lesions
- B. Lung function testing
- C. Assessment of serum calcium levels
- D. Assessment of arterial blood gases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In patients receiving testosterone therapy, the nurse should prioritize assessing serum calcium levels. Testosterone therapy can lead to hypercalcemia, making the evaluation of serum calcium levels crucial. Skin inspection for developing lesions, lung function testing, and arterial blood gas assessment are not the priority assessments for potential adverse effects of testosterone therapy. Skin inspection may be relevant for dermatological side effects, lung function testing and arterial blood gas assessment are not directly related to the common side effects of testosterone therapy.
4. What time frame has the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommended that pregnant adolescents and women who are not protected against pertussis receive the tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine?
- A. Between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation or postpartum before discharge from the hospital
- B. During the first prenatal visit when pregnancy is confirmed
- C. The vaccine should be administered 24 hours prior to delivery
- D. This vaccine is only recommended during the first trimester
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommend that pregnant adolescents and women without protection against pertussis should receive the Tdap vaccine ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation or postpartum before discharge from the hospital. This timeframe allows for the development of antibodies in the mother to protect her and provide passive immunity to the infant. Administering the vaccine during the first trimester (Choice D) is not recommended as the optimal time is between 27 and 36 weeks. Choice B, during the first prenatal visit, is too early for optimal protection, and Choice C, 24 hours prior to delivery, does not provide enough time for the vaccine to be effective before birth.
5. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
- B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
- C. Expect a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid foods high in fiber.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Atenolol, a beta-blocker, they should monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. It is crucial because if the heart rate is below 60 bpm, the client needs to contact their healthcare provider for further guidance and evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Atenolol does not need to be taken with a high-fat meal, does not typically cause a persistent cough, and there is no need to avoid foods high in fiber when taking this medication.
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