ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. In an extreme situation and when no other resident or intern is available, should a nurse receive telephone orders, the order has to be correctly written and signed by the physician within:
- A. 24 hours
- B. 36 hours
- C. 48 hours
- D. 12 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In an extreme situation where no other resident or intern is available, if a nurse receives telephone orders, the order has to be correctly written and signed by the physician within 36 hours. This time frame ensures timely documentation and validation of the orders. Choice A (24 hours) is too short a period for busy physicians to fulfill the task. Choice C (48 hours) is too long and delays the incorporation of physician orders into the patient's care plan. Choice D (12 hours) may not provide enough time for the physician to review and sign the order, especially in situations where immediate attention is not required.
2. Which suggestion is most appropriate to increase calorie intake for a patient with stomach cancer, aiming to prevent weight loss and wasting?
- A. Replace whole fat milk with skim milk or water
- B. Avoid peanut butter and other nuts
- C. Choose high-fat meat instead of lean meat
- D. Limit alcohol intake to two drinks per day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Choose high-fat meat instead of lean meat. High-fat meats are more calorie-dense than lean meats, which makes them a good choice for increasing calorie intake. This is crucial for patients with stomach cancer who want to avoid weight loss and wasting. Choice A is incorrect because skim milk or water contains fewer calories than whole fat milk. Choice B is also incorrect because peanut butter and nuts are high in calories and therefore should not be avoided when trying to increase calorie intake. Finally, choice D is not a good suggestion to increase calorie intake as alcohol does not provide the necessary nutrients needed for a balanced diet. In fact, excessive alcohol can harm the liver and other organs, and it's not a reliable source of calories.
3. Although a balanced diet is essential for tissue healing and repair, which of the following should the dental hygienist identify as the nutrient of highest priority for a patient with gingivitis or periodontal disease?
- A. Carbohydrates
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Monosaccharides
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin C is crucial for collagen production and connective tissue repair, making it a key nutrient for healing gingival tissues in patients with gingivitis or periodontal disease. Carbohydrates are a source of energy and not directly related to tissue repair. Vitamin D is important for bone health but is not the highest priority for gingival tissue healing. Monosaccharides are simple sugars and not as essential for tissue repair as Vitamin C.
4. What food assistance program provides a food debit card for older adults with low incomes?
- A. the OAA Nutrition Program
- B. Meals on Wheels
- C. the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
- D. the Emergency Food Assistance Program
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP). SNAP provides a food debit card to assist low-income individuals, including older adults, in purchasing food. Choice A, the OAA Nutrition Program, is incorrect as it refers to a different program specifically focused on providing nutrition services to older adults. Choice B, Meals on Wheels, is incorrect as it is a meal delivery service for homebound individuals rather than a food debit card program. Choice D, the Emergency Food Assistance Program, is incorrect as it typically involves the distribution of emergency food supplies rather than providing a food debit card.
5. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access