a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for levofloxacin which of the following instructions should the nu

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Levofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Take this medication with food.
B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
C. Take this medication at bedtime.
D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking Levofloxacin with dairy products. This is because calcium in dairy products can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Patients should be advised to take Levofloxacin either 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Levofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of Levofloxacin administration is not specified as at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods specifically for Levofloxacin administration.

2. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

A. Shuffling gait
B. Neck spasms
C. Drowsiness
D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

3. When administering Phenytoin, what should you monitor?

A. Behavior
B. Therapeutic blood levels
C. For signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.

4. While caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

A. PT
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not Heparin. Platelet count is important in assessing for thrombocytopenia but is not a specific indicator of Heparin therapy effectiveness.

5. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?

A. Morphine
B. Ibuprofen
C. Hydromorphone
D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.