Nursing Elites

1. How should fluid balance be monitored in a patient receiving diuretics?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method. This is because diuretics primarily affect fluid levels in the body, leading to changes in weight due to fluid loss. While monitoring intake and output, checking for edema, and monitoring blood pressure are important aspects of patient care, they do not provide as direct and accurate information about fluid balance as daily weight monitoring specifically in patients on diuretics.

2. A client is starting therapy with a statin medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase intake of dietary fiber.
• D. Take the medication in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice when taking statin medication. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice A) or in the morning (Choice D) is not specifically necessary for statins. While increasing dietary fiber intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for health, it is not a specific instruction related to taking statin medication.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer corticosteroids
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions because it rapidly reverses the symptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and relaxing airway muscles. Corticosteroids, although helpful to reduce inflammation, are not the priority in the acute management of severe allergic reactions. Oxygen may be needed to support breathing, but it is not the initial priority. Antihistamines are not as effective as epinephrine in treating severe allergic reactions and should not be the first intervention.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

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