ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A patient refused a newly open fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch
- B. Dispose of the patch in a sharps container
- C. Send the patch back to the pharmacy
- D. Document the refusal and remove the patch
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a patient refuses a newly open fentanyl patch is to ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This is essential for accountability and ensuring proper disposal procedures are followed. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the patch in a sharps container without a witness does not ensure proper accountability. Choice C is incorrect as sending the patch back to the pharmacy is not the appropriate action for disposal. Choice D is incorrect because although documenting the refusal is important, it is also crucial to ensure proper disposal of the unused patch by having another nurse witness it.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Bananas
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Whole wheat bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range and indicates hypokalemia, which should be reported to the provider. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not critically high. A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range. A serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL is also within the normal range.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has cardiac disease. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to promote optimal cardiac output?
- A. Semi-Fowler's
- B. Supine with head elevated
- C. Left lateral
- D. Right lateral
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Left lateral. Placing the client in the left lateral position helps promote optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by avoiding pressure on the vena cava. This position improves venous return to the heart and subsequently cardiac output. Option A, Semi-Fowler's position, may not be the best choice for a client with cardiac disease as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Option B, supine with head elevated, can also compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output. Option D, right lateral position, does not provide the same benefits as the left lateral position for cardiac output during pregnancy.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum glucose.
- D. Serum amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
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