Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

• A. Monitor urine output
• B. Check blood pressure
• C. Monitor IV site
• D. Check respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer corticosteroids
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions because it rapidly reverses the symptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and relaxing airway muscles. Corticosteroids, although helpful to reduce inflammation, are not the priority in the acute management of severe allergic reactions. Oxygen may be needed to support breathing, but it is not the initial priority. Antihistamines are not as effective as epinephrine in treating severe allergic reactions and should not be the first intervention.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

4. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Hypertension
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.

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