ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should weigh myself once a week.
- B. I should limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. I should report a weight gain of 2 pounds in one day.
- D. I should reduce my protein intake to prevent fluid retention.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting a sudden weight gain of 2 pounds in one day is crucial in managing heart failure because it can indicate fluid retention, a common symptom in heart failure. Option A is incorrect as weighing oneself once a week may not provide timely information about fluid retention. Option B is incorrect because fluid intake restriction is individualized and generally involves more specific guidance. Option D is incorrect as protein intake is important but reducing it solely to avoid fluid retention is not the primary focus in heart failure management.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 90/min
- B. Serosanguineous drainage in the surgical drain
- C. Temperature 38.6°C (101.5°F)
- D. Urinary output 60 mL/hr
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F) is above the normal range and indicates a fever, which is a concerning finding postoperatively. Fever can be a sign of infection, so the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within expected parameters for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 90/min, serosanguineous drainage in the surgical drain, and a urinary output of 60 mL/hr are all common postoperative findings that do not raise immediate concerns.
3. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours
- C. Weigh the client weekly
- D. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. You may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with a potassium supplement.
- D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken once daily, but not necessarily at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can actually increase potassium levels, so taking it with a potassium supplement may lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because antacids may reduce the effectiveness of lisinopril, so it should not be taken with them.
5. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT levels
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor INR levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
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