how should a nurse monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.

2. What is the most important nursing assessment post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs post-surgery. Vital signs encompass various parameters like blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or shock. While monitoring the surgical site and incision site are also essential post-surgery, monitoring vital signs takes precedence as it provides a broader assessment of the patient's overall condition. Monitoring blood pressure is part of vital sign assessment and is not the most comprehensive assessment post-surgery.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia), the nurse should administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV to help increase sodium levels. Choice B, administering a hypotonic IV solution, would further decrease the sodium level. Choice C, encouraging oral fluid intake, is contraindicated as it can dilute the sodium concentration further. Choice D, restricting oral fluid intake, could worsen the client's condition by leading to dehydration and further electrolyte imbalances.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.

5. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.

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