ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
2. A client with a new prescription for levothyroxine is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience chest pain.
- D. I will take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levothyroxine should be taken every morning before breakfast to enhance absorption and maintain consistent thyroid hormone levels. Option A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because chest pain is not a common side effect of levothyroxine and stopping the medication abruptly can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at bedtime may result in decreased absorption due to interactions with food and other medications.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern for patients on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This imbalance is a common concern because potassium plays a vital role in various physiological functions, including maintaining proper heart function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loop diuretics typically do not cause hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, or hypercalcemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Chicken breast
- B. Pasta
- C. Spinach
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication using a tuberculin syringe
- B. Administer the medication at a 45-degree angle
- C. Use the dorsogluteal muscle for injection
- D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.
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