ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing teaching to parents of a newborn about genetic screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should keep your baby's identification band on at all times.
- B. It is safe to leave your baby unattended in the room.
- C. Identification bands should be applied immediately after birth.
- D. Avoid public announcements about your baby's birth.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because avoiding public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial to reduce the risk of newborn abduction. Public announcements can attract unwanted attention and potentially jeopardize the safety of the newborn. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the baby's identification band should be kept on at all times for security purposes. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the baby unattended in the room can pose risks. Choice C is incorrect because identification bands are usually applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
- B. Grilled chicken and rice
- C. Tomato soup with saltine crackers
- D. Baked fish and steamed vegetables
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, baked fish and steamed vegetables. These food choices are low in potassium and phosphorus, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively. Grilled chicken and rice (choice B) may be high in phosphorus, tomato soup with saltine crackers (choice C) is high in sodium, and a peanut butter and jelly sandwich (choice A) contains high levels of potassium, all of which are not ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
3. What is the most important nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Encourage ambulation
- C. Apply compression stockings
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants is the most crucial nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation, applying compression stockings, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions in managing DVT, but administering anticoagulants takes priority as it directly targets the clotting process and prevents clot progression.
4. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer antihistamines
- C. Administer corticosteroids
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
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