Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to parents of a newborn about genetic screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should keep your baby's identification band on at all times.
• B. It is safe to leave your baby unattended in the room.
• C. Identification bands should be applied immediately after birth.
• D. Avoid public announcements about your baby's birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because avoiding public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial to reduce the risk of newborn abduction. Public announcements can attract unwanted attention and potentially jeopardize the safety of the newborn. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the baby's identification band should be kept on at all times for security purposes. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the baby unattended in the room can pose risks. Choice C is incorrect because identification bands are usually applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath.

2. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

• A. Supine position
• B. Semi-Fowler's position
• C. Trendelenburg position
• D. Prone position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraints within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a verbal prescription for restraints due to acute mania is to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. Documenting at regular intervals is essential to monitor the client's well-being, assess the effects of the restraints, and ensure the client's safety. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as documenting the overall condition. Obtaining a prescription for restraints within 4 hours (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed when a verbal prescription is already obtained.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take prior to administering the medication?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• C. Review the client's potassium level.
• D. Monitor the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take prior to administering digoxin is to assess the client's apical pulse. Digoxin is known to affect the heart rate, potentially causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) is not directly related to administering digoxin. Reviewing the client's potassium level (Choice C) is important but not a direct prerequisite for administering digoxin. Monitoring the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is also important but not a specific action to take just before administering digoxin.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

Similar Questions