ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Fundus firm and at the umbilicus.
- B. Heart rate 80/min.
- C. Blood pressure 130/78 mm Hg.
- D. A constant trickle of bright red blood from the vagina.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After childbirth, it is normal for the fundus to be firm and at the level of the umbilicus, heart rate to be around 80/min, and blood pressure to be slightly elevated. However, a constant trickle of bright red blood from the vagina is concerning as it could indicate postpartum hemorrhage. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within expected postpartum parameters and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer the client several choices when scheduling activities.
- B. Confront the client when inappropriate behavior occurs.
- C. Use a calm, reassuring approach when speaking to the client.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in stimulating activities.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is frequently agitated is to use a calm and reassuring approach when speaking to them. This approach helps reduce agitation and create a more therapeutic environment. Offering several choices may overwhelm the client and increase agitation, making choice A incorrect. Confronting the client can escalate the situation and worsen agitation, making choice B inappropriate. While encouraging stimulating activities is beneficial, it may not be the most effective intervention for immediate agitation management, making choice D less priority compared to using a calm and reassuring approach.
3. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.
4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min.
- B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?
- A. Serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL
- B. Blood glucose level 120 mg/dL
- C. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
- D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.
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