a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postpartum which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After childbirth, it is normal for the fundus to be firm and at the level of the umbilicus, heart rate to be around 80/min, and blood pressure to be slightly elevated. However, a constant trickle of bright red blood from the vagina is concerning as it could indicate postpartum hemorrhage. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within expected postpartum parameters and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice C is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Choice D is incorrect because aspirating for blood return is not necessary before administering a subcutaneous injection like enoxaparin.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.

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