ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following sites should the healthcare provider select?
- A. Deltoid
- B. Vastus lateralis
- C. Rectus femoris
- D. Dorsogluteal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its large muscle mass and low risk of complications. The deltoid, although a common site for vaccines, has a smaller muscle mass and may not be suitable for all types of medications. The rectus femoris is a muscle in the thigh that is more commonly used for intramuscular injections in infants. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Provide wound debridement
- C. Change the dressing daily
- D. Elevate the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.
5. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer IV dextrose
- B. Administer oral glucose
- C. Monitor blood sugar levels
- D. Recheck blood sugar in 15 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia is to administer IV dextrose. This intervention is necessary to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in critical situations. Administering oral glucose may not be effective in severe cases as the patient may be unable to consume it. Monitoring blood sugar levels and rechecking blood sugar in 15 minutes are important steps but not the initial best intervention for severe hypoglycemia.
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