Nursing Elites

1. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a moody child with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The scenario describes Gilbert as having an early and slow onset of schizophrenia, which typically indicates a less positive prognosis. Individuals with such presentations may experience more severe symptoms and difficulties in functioning, leading to a poorer long-term outcome. In Gilbert's case, his challenges with completing tasks, social withdrawal, and fixation on security measures suggest a more challenging prognosis. Early detection and intervention are crucial in managing schizophrenia, but the described symptoms and onset pattern are concerning for a less favorable outcome.

2. The healthcare provider is providing medication education to a patient who has been prescribed lithium to stabilize mood. Which early signs and symptoms of toxicity should the healthcare provider stress to the patient? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Increased attentiveness
• B. Getting up at night to urinate
• C. Improved vision
• D. An upset stomach for no apparent reason

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Early signs of lithium toxicity include gastrointestinal upset, tremors, increased urination, and increased thirst. Improved vision is not a typical early sign of lithium toxicity and should be ruled out as a symptom to watch for.

3. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

4. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed a benzodiazepine. The nurse should educate the patient that this medication is typically used for:

• A. For long-term maintenance therapy.
• B. As a first-line treatment.
• C. For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.
• D. To treat depression symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.' Benzodiazepines are usually prescribed for short-term relief of anxiety symptoms due to the risk of dependence. Prolonged use can lead to tolerance, dependence, and other adverse effects, so they are not typically used for long-term maintenance therapy (choice A). They are not considered first-line treatments for panic disorder (choice B) and are not primarily used to treat depression symptoms (choice D), as their main indication is for anxiety and panic disorders.

5. When a patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine, what is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Suicidal ideation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating fluoxetine therapy in a patient with major depressive disorder, monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial due to the increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behaviors that can occur, especially in the initial phase of treatment. This close monitoring is essential to ensure patient safety and intervene promptly if such symptoms arise. Weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are potential side effects of some medications used to treat depression, but suicidal ideation is the most critical and immediate side effect to monitor for when starting fluoxetine.

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