ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
2. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Exposure and response prevention
- C. Interpersonal therapy
- D. Supportive therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
3. Which assessment question asked by the nurse demonstrates an understanding of comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Do rules apply to you?
- B. What do you do to manage anxiety?
- C. Do you have a history of disordered eating?
- D. Do you think that you drink too much?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Questions about anxiety management, disordered eating, and alcohol use are relevant to identifying comorbid conditions with major depressive disorder, but the question 'Do rules apply to you?' does not directly address common comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder.
4. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs can cause anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, due to their mechanism of action. Educating the patient about dry mouth can help them stay informed and manage this common side effect effectively during treatment. Hypertension (Choice A) is not a common side effect of TCAs. Diarrhea (Choice B) is more commonly associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) than with TCAs. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a common side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause weight gain.
5. When educating the family of a client diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to avoid stressful situations.
- B. Encourage the client to participate in daily activities.
- C. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
- D. Encourage the client to develop a daily routine.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases of dissociative identity disorder, it is beneficial for the client to establish a daily routine. This structure can enhance symptom management and provide a sense of stability, which is particularly important for individuals with this condition. Encouraging the client to avoid stressful situations (Choice A) may not always be possible and does not address the need for structure. While encouraging the client to participate in daily activities (Choice B) is important, having a routine is more crucial for managing dissociative identity disorder. Expressing feelings (Choice C) is valuable but establishing a routine takes precedence in this situation.
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