Nursing Elites

1. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

2. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a moody child with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The scenario describes Gilbert as having an early and slow onset of schizophrenia, which typically indicates a less positive prognosis. Individuals with such presentations may experience more severe symptoms and difficulties in functioning, leading to a poorer long-term outcome. In Gilbert's case, his challenges with completing tasks, social withdrawal, and fixation on security measures suggest a more challenging prognosis. Early detection and intervention are crucial in managing schizophrenia, but the described symptoms and onset pattern are concerning for a less favorable outcome.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to observe?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Weight gain
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight gain is a common symptom of major depressive disorder. Individuals with major depressive disorder often experience changes in appetite, leading to weight gain or loss. This symptom is related to disruptions in the individual's eating habits and metabolism, which are commonly associated with depression. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, increased appetite, and restlessness are not typical symptoms of major depressive disorder. In fact, individuals with depression often experience fatigue, changes in appetite, and feelings of restlessness or agitation.

4. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
• C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
• D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

5. What principle about patient-nurse communication should guide a nurse's fear of saying the wrong thing to a patient?

• A. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation.
• B. Patients are more interested in conversing with you than in hearing your perspective, making offense unlikely.
• C. Considering the patient's background, the likelihood of the comment causing harm is minimal.
• D. Individuals with mental illness often possess a heightened capacity for forgiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Patients value interactions with healthcare providers who express genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their well-being. By focusing on conveying these qualities, a nurse can help alleviate fears of saying the wrong thing as patients appreciate the sincerity and empathy in the communication. This approach fosters trust and a positive therapeutic relationship, enhancing the effectiveness of patient-nurse communication.

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