ATI RN
ATI Gastrointestinal System Test
1. Findings during an endoscopic exam include a cobblestone appearance of the colon in your patient. The findings are characteristic of which disorder?
- A. Ulcer
- B. Crohn’s disease
- C. Chronic gastritis
- D. Ulcerative colitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The cobblestone appearance of the colon is characteristic of Crohn’s disease.
2. Which type of diabetes is often associated with a BMI greater than 25 and an increased percentage of body fat, particularly in the abdominal region, contributing to insulin resistance?
- A. Type 1 Diabetes
- B. Type 2 Diabetes
- C. Gestational Diabetes
- D. Prediabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Type 2 Diabetes is often associated with a BMI greater than 25 and an increased percentage of body fat, particularly in the abdominal region, contributing to insulin resistance. Type 1 Diabetes is an autoimmune condition not primarily linked to BMI or body fat percentage. Gestational Diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not directly related to BMI. Prediabetes is a condition where blood sugar levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be diagnosed as Type 2 Diabetes; although it can be associated with higher BMI, it is not as definitive as in Type 2 Diabetes.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?
- A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
- B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
- C. BUN 8 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.
4. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct answer: This could result in profound bleeding.
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is prescribed home oxygen. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Check your oxygen equipment daily for proper function.
- B. Increase the oxygen flow rate if you feel short of breath.
- C. Store your oxygen tanks lying flat on the floor.
- D. It is safe to smoke as long as you are more than 10 feet from the oxygen source.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make is to advise the client to check the oxygen equipment daily for proper function. This is crucial to ensure the client's home oxygen therapy is working effectively and safely. Choice B is incorrect because adjusting the oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen tanks should be stored upright, not lying flat. Choice D is incorrect and unsafe advice, as smoking near an oxygen source can lead to a fire hazard.
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