Nursing Elites

1. A 40-year-old male client has been hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease. He is being treated with a histamine receptor antagonist (cimetidine), antacids, and diet. The nurse doing discharge planning will teach him that the action of cimetidine is to:

• A. Reduce gastric acid output
• B. Protect the ulcer surface
• C. Inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl)
• D. Inhibit vagus nerve stimulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cimetidine inhibits the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl), which helps to treat peptic ulcer disease.

2. The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis. The client is scheduled for surgery for 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increases abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment the nurse notes that the abdomen distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Administer the prescribed pain medication.
• B. Notify the physician.
• C. Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible.
• D. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on warm setting to the client’s abdomen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Based on the signs and symptoms presented in the question, the nurse should suspect peritonitis and should notify the physician. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a client with suspected appendicitis. Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of nursing practice, although the physician probably would perform the surgery earlier than the prescheduled time.

3. A nurse has been caring for a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube. The physician arrives on the nursing unit and deflates the esophageal balloon. The nurse should monitor the client most closely for which of the following?

• A. Swelling of the abdomen
• B. Bloody diarrhea
• C. Vomiting blood
• D. An elevated temperature and arise in blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is inserted into a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis and ruptured esophageal varices. The tube has an esophageal and a gastric balloon. The esophageal balloon exerts pressure on the bleeding. The pressure of the esophageal balloon is released at intervals to decrease the risk of trauma to esophageal tissues, including esophageal rupture or necrosis. When the balloon is deflated the client may begin to bleed again from the esophageal varices, noted by vomiting of blood.

4. The client has orders for a nasogastric (NG) tube insertion. During the procedure, instructions that will assist in the insertion would be:

• A. Instruct the client to tilt his head back for insertion in the nostril, then flex his neck for the final insertion
• B. After insertion into the nostril, instruct the client to extend his neck
• C. Introduce the tube with the client’s head tilted back, then instruct him to keep his head upright for final insertion
• D. Instruct the client to hold his chin down, then back for insertion of the tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to tilt his head back for insertion in the nostril, then flex his neck for the final insertion helps facilitate the NG tube insertion.

5. A nurse is assigned to a 40-year-old client who has a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. The nurse reviews the laboratory result, anticipating a laboratory report that indicates a serum amylase level of

• A. 45 units/L
• B. 100 units/L
• C. 300 units/L
• D. 500 units/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum amylase level is 25 to 151 IU/L. With chronic cases of pancreatitis, the rise in serum amylase levels usually does not exceed three times the normal value. In acute pancreatitis, the value may exceed five times the normal value. Options 1 and 2 are within normal limits. Option 3 is an extremely elevated level seen in acute pancreatitis.

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