Nursing Elites

1. Each of the following is a function of vitamin A, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Prevention of night blindness
• B. Growth of soft tissues and bone
• C. Maintenance of more than 200 genes
• D. Integrity of body openings and their linings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Maintenance of more than 200 genes is not a function of vitamin A; instead, it is a function of Vitamin D. Vitamin A plays a crucial role in the prevention of night blindness by aiding in the production of the visual pigment rhodopsin. It also supports the growth of soft tissues and bone, as well as the integrity of body openings and their linings. Choice C is incorrect because the maintenance of genes is primarily associated with Vitamin D, not Vitamin A.

2. Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach?

• A. X-ray
• B. Observation of gastric aspirate
• C. Testing of pH of gastric aspirate
• D. Placement of external end of tube under water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

3. What special consideration should be taken into account when Mario prepares Richard for postural drainage and percussion?

• A. Monitoring a respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute
• B. Assessing the client's ability to tolerate sitting and lying positions
• C. Ensuring the client is free of signs of infection
• D. Knowing the time of the client's last food and fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Monitoring a respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute'. When performing postural drainage and percussion, it is crucial to monitor the respiratory rate to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure. Choice B, 'Assessing the client's ability to tolerate sitting and lying positions', while important, is not directly related to the specifics of postural drainage and percussion. Similarly, option C, 'Ensuring the client is free of signs of infection', although important, is not directly linked to the procedure. Option D, 'Knowing the time of the client's last food and fluid intake', might be relevant for other procedures, but it is not the primary consideration for postural drainage and percussion.

4. Which of the following is reflected in an ECG due to hypokalemia?

• A. Tall T waves and Pathologic Q wave
• B. Widening QRS Complex and U wave
• C. None of the above
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, is reflected in an ECG by a widening QRS Complex and a U wave. This is because potassium plays a key role in the electrical activity of the heart, and its deficiency can lead to abnormalities in the heart's rhythm as represented by these specific changes on the ECG. Choice A is incorrect as tall T waves and pathologic Q waves are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia or myocardial infarction, respectively, rather than hypokalemia. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the ECG changes caused by hypokalemia.

5. In kidney disease, which mineral should a patient limit intake of?

• A. Calcium
• B. Magnesium
• C. Phosphorus
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In kidney disease, patients are advised to limit the intake of phosphorus. High levels of phosphorus can be problematic as the kidneys may not be able to effectively filter it out, leading to bone health issues. Calcium (Choice A) is important for bone health, but its restriction is not typically necessary in kidney disease. Magnesium (Choice B) and potassium (Choice D) restrictions may be required in certain cases of kidney disease, but phosphorus is the mineral most commonly limited due to its impact on bone health.

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