ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?
- A. “How would you describe your overall health status?”
- B. “Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?”
- C. “How has this issue been impacting your relationship?”
- D. “Have you experienced any recent injuries?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.
2. What are the Therapeutic Effects of Lithium?
- A. Prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes
- B. Maintenance of blood glucose
- C. Control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients
- D. Diminished seizure activity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lithium is that it prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder. Lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder due to its ability to reduce the frequency and severity of manic episodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used for the maintenance of blood glucose, control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients, or to diminish seizure activity. These effects are not associated with the use of lithium as a medication.
3. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering childhood vaccinations
- B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
- C. Routine screening for hypertension
- D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.
4. A patient with Crohn’s disease is admitted after 4 days of diarrhea. Which of the following urine specific gravity values do you expect to find in this patient?
- A. 1.005
- B. 1.011
- C. 1.02
- D. 1.03
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.030 indicates concentrated urine, which is expected in a patient with dehydration due to diarrhea from Crohn’s disease.
5. Which fibers distribute the electrical impulse to the ventricles, causing them to contract?
- A. Purkinje fibers
- B. SA node
- C. AV node
- D. Bundle of His
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Purkinje fibers. Purkinje fibers are specialized conducting fibers that distribute the electrical impulse to the ventricles, leading to their contraction. The SA node (sinoatrial node) is responsible for initiating the electrical impulse in the heart, the AV node (atrioventricular node) delays the impulse to allow for proper atrial contraction before ventricular contraction, and the Bundle of His transmits the impulse from the AV node to the ventricles. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are not the correct options for fibers directly distributing the impulse to the ventricles.
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