a 52 year old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunct
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.

2. What should the nurse assess in a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of non-adherence, potentially reducing the effectiveness of the contraceptives. Assessing the adherence to the schedule helps in determining if the medication is being taken correctly. The possibility of pregnancy (choice B) is less likely if the patient has been taking the contraceptives as prescribed. Increasing the dosage (choice C) without assessing adherence first can lead to unnecessary medication adjustments. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (choice D) comes after assessing adherence to the schedule.

3. Which of the following characteristics is common in both malignant and benign tumors?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uncontrolled cell growth. This characteristic is common to both malignant and benign tumors. Benign tumors are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rapid growth, metastasis, and invasion of surrounding tissue are characteristics typically associated with malignant tumors.

4. A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which she suffered a spinal cord injury at the level of C5. Which of the following assessments should be the priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring heart rate and rhythm. With a C5 spinal cord injury, monitoring heart rate and rhythm is crucial as it can impact autonomic regulation. This level of injury can affect cardiac function due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve fibers. Monitoring urinary output may be important to assess for urinary retention, but it is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring respiratory rate is essential in all patients, in this case, cardiovascular stability takes precedence. Pain management is important but is not the priority when assessing a client with a C5 spinal cord injury.

5. A patient is starting on atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking it at night aligns with the body's natural rhythm of cholesterol production, optimizing its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can increase the risk of side effects by affecting the metabolism of atorvastatin. Choice C is incorrect as taking atorvastatin in the morning does not maximize its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol consumption can increase the risk of liver damage when combined with atorvastatin.

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