ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption.
- B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water, and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. This positioning helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensures adequate drug absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken with water, not milk. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific advantage to taking alendronate at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because taking alendronate with food may interfere with its absorption.
2. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of oral contraceptives. What should the nurse explain as a common side effect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of oral contraceptives due to hormonal changes. It is essential for healthcare providers to inform patients about this possibility to manage expectations. Choice A, increased energy levels, is not a common side effect of oral contraceptives. Choice B, decreased libido, can be a side effect for some individuals but is not as common as weight gain. Choice D, hair loss, is not typically associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to address the patient's concerns by discussing the more prevalent side effects like weight gain.
3. A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?
- A. “How would you describe your overall health status?”
- B. “Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?”
- C. “How has this issue been impacting your relationship?”
- D. “Have you experienced any recent injuries?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.
4. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
- B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
- C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
- D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.
5. A patient has been prescribed mifepristone (RU-486) to terminate a pregnancy. How does this drug achieve its therapeutic effect?
- A. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.
- B. By increasing estrogen levels, which induce uterine contractions.
- C. By altering the uterine lining, preventing implantation.
- D. By stimulating uterine contractions, which expel the embryo.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.
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