Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption.
• B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water, and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. This positioning helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensures adequate drug absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken with water, not milk. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific advantage to taking alendronate at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because taking alendronate with food may interfere with its absorption.

2. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?

• A. “Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time.”
• B. “It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't worsen, but it's important to strive for consistent adherence.”
• C. “Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them consistently and as prescribed.”
• D. “If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.

3. An older adult patient has asked her primary care provider for a prescription that will help to resolve her “warped toenails.” The care provider has diagnosed the woman with onychomycosis. The nurse should anticipate that this patient will be treated with what drug?

• A. Micafungin (Mycamine)
• B. Terbinafine (Lamisil)
• C. Voriconazole (Vfend)
• D. Fluconazole (Diflucan)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Terbinafine (Lamisil). Terbinafine is commonly used to treat onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the toenails or fingernails. It works by stopping the growth of the fungus. Micafungin (Mycamine) is an antifungal medication used for different types of fungal infections but is not typically used to treat onychomycosis. Voriconazole (Vfend) is another antifungal medication used for specific fungal infections, but it is not a first-line treatment for onychomycosis. Fluconazole (Diflucan) is also an antifungal medication, but it is more commonly used for yeast infections and may not be as effective for treating onychomycosis compared to terbinafine.

4. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B. Neisseria meningitidis
• C. Escherichia coli
• D. Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

5. When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?

• A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
• B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
• C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
• D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.

Similar Questions