Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption.
• B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water, and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. This positioning helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensures adequate drug absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken with water, not milk. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific advantage to taking alendronate at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because taking alendronate with food may interfere with its absorption.

2. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

3. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?

• A. “Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time.”
• B. “It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't worsen, but it's important to strive for consistent adherence.”
• C. “Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them consistently and as prescribed.”
• D. “If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.

4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

5. When administering an immunization, which of the following medications should be available?

• A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
• C. Physostigmine
• D. Epinephrine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering an immunization, it is essential to have epinephrine available in case of an allergic reaction such as anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is the medication of choice for treating severe allergic reactions due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine are antihistamines that can help manage mild allergic reactions but are not the primary medications for severe reactions like anaphylaxis. Physostigmine is not indicated for managing allergic reactions and is used for specific conditions such as anticholinergic toxicity.

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