Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption.
• B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water, and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. This positioning helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensures adequate drug absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken with water, not milk. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific advantage to taking alendronate at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because taking alendronate with food may interfere with its absorption.

2. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

3. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?

• A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
• B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
• C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
• D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.

4. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What key contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?

• A. Use of nitrates
• B. History of hypertension
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. Use of antihypertensive medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, so their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while a history of hypertension or use of antihypertensive medications may influence treatment decisions, they are not the key contraindication specifically related to sildenafil use.

5. What important information should the nurse provide about the risks associated with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with a history of breast cancer?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients on tamoxifen should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; it may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, and it may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

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