ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption.
- B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water, and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. This positioning helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensures adequate drug absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken with water, not milk. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific advantage to taking alendronate at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because taking alendronate with food may interfere with its absorption.
2. A nursing student having trouble moving her head from side to side is likely experiencing a problem with which type of neurons?
- A. General visceral efferent neurons
- B. Preganglionic neurons
- C. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
- D. Pharyngeal efferent neurons
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pharyngeal efferent neurons. Pharyngeal efferent neurons are responsible for controlling head movements, including side-to-side motions. General visceral efferent neurons (Choice A) are involved in innervating smooth muscles and glands in the body's internal organs. Preganglionic neurons (Choice B) are part of the autonomic nervous system and connect the central nervous system to the ganglia. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons (Choice C) are the second neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system pathway, responsible for innervating target organs. In this case, the issue with moving the head from side to side indicates a problem with the pharyngeal efferent neurons.
3. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
- A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
- B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
- C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
- D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.
4. How does influenza immunization produce immunity?
- A. The virus from the vaccine remains in the body until the end of the season
- B. An attenuated virus causes immune system suppression and triggers immunity
- C. The body identifies the virus and develops antibodies against the virus
- D. The vaccine remains in the injection site and produces immune cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Influenza immunization works by introducing a weakened or inactivated form of the virus into the body, allowing the immune system to recognize it as foreign. This recognition triggers the production of antibodies specific to the virus. Choice A is incorrect as the virus in the vaccine does not remain in the body until the end of the season. Choice B is incorrect as an attenuated virus does not cause immune system suppression but rather stimulates an immune response. Choice D is incorrect because the vaccine does not stay at the injection site but rather prompts a systemic immune response throughout the body.
5. In which disorder does a Staphylococcus aureus organism produce a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Herpes simplex II virus
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Herpes simplex I virus.' This disorder is known as Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), where a Staphylococcus aureus organism produces an exfoliative toxin leading to skin exfoliation and large blister formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Herpes simplex viruses (I and II) cause different types of skin lesions and do not lead to exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe soft tissue infection, while cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that does not typically involve exfoliation and blister formation like in SSSS.
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