during an intake assessment a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions the client angrily responds im here for my heart not my head pr
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the healthcare professional's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should educate the client on the negative effects of excessive stress on medical conditions. Understanding the interconnectedness of physical and mental health is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects. Choice B is wrong as it doesn't provide relevant information about the impact of psychological factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because skipping questions would lead to an incomplete assessment, potentially missing crucial information affecting the client's overall health outcomes.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During severe anxiety, it is essential to create a quiet and calm environment to help the client feel safe and reduce anxiety levels. Loud or stimulating environments can exacerbate anxiety symptoms, so providing a serene setting can promote relaxation and a sense of security.

3. A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder tells the nurse, 'You are the only one who understands me. The other nurses don't care about me.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide support while also emphasizing that all staff members care about the client's well-being. Choice A does not acknowledge the client's emotions and may come across as dismissive. Choice C invalidates the client's feelings and may make the client feel misunderstood. Choice D minimizes the client's emotions, which can lead to a breakdown in therapeutic communication. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate response as it validates the client's feelings while reinforcing the idea that the entire healthcare team is supportive.

4. Which intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting routine suicide screenings at senior centers is crucial in managing major depressive disorder in the older population. Screening helps identify individuals at risk, allows for timely intervention, and contributes to the overall well-being of older adults.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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