ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client diagnosed with panic disorder is receiving discharge teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid caffeine and other stimulants.
- B. I should take my medication only when I feel anxious.
- C. I should use relaxation techniques to manage anxiety.
- D. I should avoid exercising to prevent triggering anxiety.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding caffeine and other stimulants is crucial for clients with panic disorder as these substances can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Caffeine can trigger or worsen anxiety, leading to increased heart rate and restlessness. By eliminating stimulants, the client can better manage their anxiety levels and reduce the risk of panic attacks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking medication only when feeling anxious may lead to inconsistent treatment, using relaxation techniques alone may not be sufficient for managing panic disorder, and avoiding exercise can actually be counterproductive as regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and stress levels.
2. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a patient with major depression at the county clinic. Since the patient has a mild intellectual disability, the nurse would question which classification of antidepressant drugs:
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
- B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
- C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are less suitable for patients with intellectual disabilities due to the need for dietary restrictions and close monitoring. These restrictions can be challenging for patients with mild intellectual disabilities to follow, making this drug class a concern for this patient population.
3. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed a benzodiazepine. The nurse should educate the patient that this medication is typically used for:
- A. For long-term maintenance therapy.
- B. As a first-line treatment.
- C. For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.
- D. To treat depression symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.' Benzodiazepines are usually prescribed for short-term relief of anxiety symptoms due to the risk of dependence. Prolonged use can lead to tolerance, dependence, and other adverse effects, so they are not typically used for long-term maintenance therapy (choice A). They are not considered first-line treatments for panic disorder (choice B) and are not primarily used to treat depression symptoms (choice D), as their main indication is for anxiety and panic disorders.
4. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a moody child with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:
- A. Favorable with medication
- B. In the relapse stage
- C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
- D. To have a less positive outcome
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The scenario describes Gilbert as having an early and slow onset of schizophrenia, which typically indicates a less positive prognosis. Individuals with such presentations may experience more severe symptoms and difficulties in functioning, leading to a poorer long-term outcome. In Gilbert's case, his challenges with completing tasks, social withdrawal, and fixation on security measures suggest a more challenging prognosis. Early detection and intervention are crucial in managing schizophrenia, but the described symptoms and onset pattern are concerning for a less favorable outcome.
5. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?
- A. Exposure therapy
- B. Cognitive restructuring
- C. Medication management
- D. Psychoeducation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.
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