ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice B
1. A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Encourage the client to express their feelings
- B. Teach the client relaxation techniques
- C. Promote regular physical activity
- D. Encourage the use of caffeine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Interventions for a client with GAD should include encouraging the client to express their feelings, teaching relaxation techniques, and promoting regular physical activity. Caffeine should be avoided as it can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Stimulants like caffeine can increase feelings of restlessness and nervousness, making it counterproductive in managing anxiety. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting emotional expression, relaxation, and physical well-being, respectively. Choice D, encouraging the use of caffeine, is incorrect as it can worsen anxiety symptoms rather than alleviate them.
2. What nursing consideration is most important when caring for a child with end-stage renal disease (ESRD)?
- A. Children with ESRD usually adapt well to minor inconveniences of treatment.
- B. Children with ESRD require extensive support until they outgrow the condition.
- C. Multiple stresses are placed on children with ESRD and their families until the illness is cured.
- D. Multiple stresses are placed on children with ESRD and their families because children's lives are maintained by drugs and artificial means.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: ESRD places significant stress on both the child and the family due to the ongoing need for dialysis, medications, and lifestyle restrictions, making it important for healthcare providers to offer extensive support and resources to manage these challenges.
3. When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient, what is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Monitor the patient's electrolyte levels.
- B. Assess the patient's blood pressure regularly.
- C. Monitor the patient's heart rate every 4 hours.
- D. Check the patient's urine output hourly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's blood pressure regularly. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient as it helps in evaluating the patient's fluid status. Changes in blood pressure can indicate the effectiveness of the fluid therapy, the patient's response to treatment, and the possibility of complications such as fluid overload or hypovolemia. Monitoring electrolyte levels (Choice A) is essential but not the priority when assessing a dehydrated patient receiving IV fluids. Heart rate (Choice C) should be monitored more frequently than every 4 hours in such a situation. Checking urine output (Choice D) is important but not as critical as assessing blood pressure in this scenario.
4. A client does not understand why vision loss due to glaucoma is irreversible. What is the best explanation?
- A. Once bacterial infection has caused damage, the tissue does not regenerate.
- B. Once retinal detachment occurs, it does not return to its normal state.
- C. Too many nerve fibers have become ischemic and died, so vision loss is permanent.
- D. Glaucoma always leads to permanent blindness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In glaucoma, the optic nerve damage due to high intraocular pressure leads to permanent vision loss because the nerve fibers do not regenerate. Choice A is incorrect as it discusses bacterial infection, not relevant to glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to retinal detachment, not glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because not all glaucoma cases lead to permanent blindness; vision loss can be prevented or slowed with treatment.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?
- A. Positive Trousseau's sign.
- B. Hyperactive reflexes.
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
- D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.
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