Nursing Elites

1. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from:

• A. Major depression
• B. Normal grieving
• C. Adjustment disorder
• D. Posttraumatic stress disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.

2. Upon admission, a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder needs the nurse to implement which of the following interventions first?

• A. Administer an antidepressant medication.
• B. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.
• C. Develop a plan of care with the client.
• D. Teach the client about the importance of medication compliance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The initial intervention the nurse should prioritize is to establish a trusting relationship with the client. Building trust is fundamental in fostering effective therapeutic communication and providing quality care. This foundational step lays the groundwork for further assessment, collaboration on care plans, and promoting treatment adherence. Administering medication or discussing compliance should come after the establishment of trust to ensure the client feels supported and understood.

3. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?

• A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
• B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
• C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
• D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.

4. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

5. Tatiana has been hospitalized for an acute manic episode. On admission, the nurse suspects lithium toxicity. What assessment findings would indicate the nurse's suspicion as correct?

• A. Shortness of breath, gastrointestinal distress, chronic cough
• B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine
• C. Gastrointestinal distress, thirst, nystagmus
• D. Electroencephalographic changes, chest pain, dizziness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, and a large volume of dilute urine are classic signs of lithium toxicity. Ataxia refers to a lack of muscle coordination, severe hypotension indicates dangerously low blood pressure, and the large volume of dilute urine is a result of the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, a common feature of lithium toxicity.

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