ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing treatment with an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly utilized for this condition?
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Citalopram
- C. Paroxetine
- D. Escitalopram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder due to its efficacy in managing OCD symptoms. While different SSRIs may be used based on individual patient response and tolerability, Paroxetine stands out as a well-established option for treating OCD. Fluoxetine (Choice A) is another SSRI commonly used for OCD, but Paroxetine is more commonly associated with this indication. Citalopram (Choice B) and Escitalopram (Choice D) are also SSRIs but are not typically the first choice for treating OCD.
2. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.
3. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.
4. In a patient with schizophrenia, which of the following symptoms would indicate a poor prognosis?
- A. Auditory hallucinations
- B. Paranoia
- C. Flat affect
- D. Delusions of grandeur
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A flat affect, characterized by a lack of emotional expression, is often linked to a poorer prognosis in schizophrenia. It can hinder social interactions and affect the individual's ability to engage in therapy or express emotions, thereby impacting the overall treatment outcomes. Auditory hallucinations (Choice A) and delusions of grandeur (Choice D) are common symptoms in schizophrenia but may not always indicate a poor prognosis. Paranoia (Choice B) can also vary in its impact on prognosis depending on the individual and the severity of the symptom.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with factitious disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Intentional production of false symptoms
- B. Lack of concern about symptoms
- C. Fear of gaining weight
- D. Unintentional production of false symptoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with factitious disorder deliberately fabricate or exaggerate symptoms to assume the sick role and garner attention. They may show a lack of concern about their symptoms, a phenomenon known as la belle indifférence. Fear of gaining weight is not typically associated with factitious disorder. Therefore, the correct behavior to expect in a client with factitious disorder is the intentional production of false symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lack of concern about symptoms and fear of gaining weight are not characteristic of factitious disorder. Additionally, factitious disorder involves the intentional, not unintentional, production of false symptoms.
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