Nursing Elites

1. Interpret the following arterial blood gas results: PH = 7.30; PaCO2 = 55 mmHg; HCO3 = 24 mEq/L

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an accumulation of CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. The elevated PaCO2 of 55 mmHg in the given results indicates hypoventilation, causing respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the provided data does not show metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, or metabolic alkalosis.

2. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:

• A. Failure of B cells to mature
• B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
• C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
• D. Selective IgG deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.

3. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

4. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
• B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. The patient's viral load
• D. The patient's CD4 count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

5. What lab results would be noted in a client with leukocytosis?

• A. Increased white blood cell count
• B. Increased platelet count
• C. Decreased white blood cell count
• D. Decreased platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Leukocytosis is a condition characterized by an elevated white blood cell count, typically in response to infection or inflammation. Therefore, the correct answer is an increased white blood cell count (Choice A). Increased platelet count (Choice B) is not a typical finding in leukocytosis. Choices C and D, decreased white blood cell count and decreased platelet count respectively, are opposite to what would be expected in leukocytosis and are therefore incorrect.

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