an older adult patient comes to the clinic complaining of not being able to do what he used to be able to you know that normal changes associated with
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. An older adult patient comes to the clinic complaining of not being able to do what he used to be able to. You know that normal changes associated with aging include:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Normal changes associated with aging include a slowed metabolic rate and decreased brain weight. Option A, 'Improved blood flow,' is incorrect as aging is generally associated with reduced vascular health rather than improved blood flow. Option D, 'Improved nerve fiber conduction,' is incorrect as aging typically leads to a decline in nerve function rather than improvement.

2. When discussing the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with a patient who has a history of coronary artery disease, what should the nurse emphasize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of coronary artery disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT is actually known to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT may slightly increase the risk of breast cancer.

3. A man with gout has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'chronic gout.' Chronic gout is characterized by the presence of tophi, which are large, hard nodules that can develop around joints like toes and elbows. These tophi are a sign of longstanding, untreated gout. Choice A, 'asymptomatic,' is incorrect as the presence of tophi indicates a symptomatic phase. Choice B, 'acute flare,' is incorrect as acute flares are characterized by sudden and severe pain, inflammation, and redness in the joints, not the development of tophi. Choice C, 'the intercritical period,' is also incorrect as this phase occurs between acute attacks and is typically asymptomatic, without the presence of tophi.

4. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

5. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is important to minimize the risk of transfer to others. Applying the gel to the lower abdomen, thighs, face, or neck can increase the risk of transfer to others, especially women and children who should avoid contact with testosterone gel. Applying it to the scalp and back is not recommended as these areas are not suitable for absorption of the medication.

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