ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia?
- A. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy
- B. Those who exercise regularly and are not exposed to pathogens
- C. Those who are hospitalized and immunocompromised
- D. Those who have adequate respiratory function
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients who are hospitalized and immunocompromised are at the highest risk for pneumonia due to their weakened immune systems. Choice A is incorrect as young and healthy individuals typically have stronger immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise can actually boost the immune system and reduce the risk of infections. Choice D is incorrect as having adequate respiratory function does not necessarily correlate with the risk of developing pneumonia.
2. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
3. A client with a pneumothorax is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation levels
- C. Improved breath sounds on the affected side
- D. Increased dyspnea and chest pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax receiving oxygen therapy, improved breath sounds on the affected side would indicate effective treatment. This finding suggests that the collapsed lung is re-expanding, allowing air to flow more freely in and out of the affected area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Increased respiratory rate, decreased oxygen saturation levels, and increased dyspnea and chest pain are signs of ineffective treatment or worsening of the condition in a client with a pneumothorax.
4. A patient's anemia is described as having erythrocytes that demonstrate anisocytosis. The nurse would recognize the erythrocytes as:
- A. Pale in color
- B. Present in various sizes
- C. Able to assume various shapes
- D. Live only a few days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Present in various sizes.' Anisocytosis refers to erythrocytes that are present in various sizes, indicating an abnormality in the uniformity of red blood cell size. Choice A is incorrect because anisocytosis does not refer to the color of erythrocytes. Choice C is incorrect as anisocytosis does not involve the shape of erythrocytes. Choice D is incorrect as anisocytosis does not determine the lifespan of erythrocytes.
5. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within
- A. 48 hours.
- B. a week to 10 days.
- C. 2 to 3 weeks.
- D. 4 to 6 weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.
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