ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Medications classified as angiotensin II receptor agents typically end in?
- A. Sartan
- B. Ase
- C. Olol
- D. Pril
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents belong to the drug class called angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). The generic names of ARBs usually end in -sartan, helping to identify this specific class of medications. Therefore, medications that end in -sartan are likely to be angiotensin II receptor agents. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because drugs ending in -ase (like streptokinase), -olol (like propranolol), and -pril (like lisinopril) typically belong to different drug classes with distinct mechanisms of action.
2. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Decreased respiratory function
- C. Anesthetic
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.
3. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Rinse your mouth after each use of this medication.
- B. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin B12 while taking this medication.
- D. You can take the medication as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is to rinse the mouth after each use of Beclomethasone. This practice helps reduce the risk of developing oral fungal infections associated with inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to limit fluid intake while taking this medication. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific indication to increase vitamin B12 intake with Beclomethasone. Choice D is incorrect as Beclomethasone should be used according to the prescribed schedule, not as needed.
4. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.
5. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
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