Nursing Elites

1. What is the therapeutic use of metformin?

• A. Lower blood pressure
• B. Diminish seizure activity
• C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose levels
• D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Metformin is commonly prescribed to manage and control blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes. It helps in reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and improves the body's response to insulin, thereby aiding in the regulation of blood sugar levels. It is not used to lower blood pressure, diminish seizure activity, increase heart rate, or decrease gastrointestinal secretions.

2. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

3. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

5. A client with breast cancer is being taught about Tamoxifen. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen should the client be informed about?

• A. Irregular heart rhythm
• B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
• C. Yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine
• D. Difficulty swallowing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abnormal uterine bleeding is a known adverse effect of tamoxifen. It is important to educate the client about this side effect as those taking tamoxifen are at an increased risk for endometrial cancer. Any abnormal uterine bleeding should be promptly reported and evaluated by healthcare providers to ensure timely management and monitoring. The other options, such as irregular heart rhythm, yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine, and difficulty swallowing, are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are not commonly reported adverse effects. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to inform the client about.

Similar Questions