a nurse is caring for a client who is taking ritonavir a protease inhibitor to treat hiv infection the nurse should monitor for which of the following
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Bisacodyl suppositories. Which of the following information should the provider include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about Bisacodyl suppositories, it is important to include information about the common side effects. Rectal burning is a frequent side effect that can occur after using Bisacodyl suppositories, so the client should be informed to expect this discomfort. The onset of action for Bisacodyl suppositories is typically within 15 to 60 minutes, so the client should expect results relatively quickly, not in 6 to 12 hours. It is essential to follow the healthcare provider's instructions on how to insert the suppository correctly. Keeping the suppository at room temperature is sufficient; refrigeration is not required. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it addresses a common side effect and prepares the client for potential discomfort. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not focus on a significant side effect, proper administration, or storage requirements.

3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should avoid which of the following foods?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Clients prescribed spironolactone should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium. Increased potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of spironolactone.

4. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tendon discomfort is a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin that can lead to tendon rupture and should be reported immediately to prevent serious complications. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial for patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Taking an antacid with ciprofloxacin can interfere with its absorption. B) Increasing fluid intake is generally a good recommendation but not specifically related to the side effects of ciprofloxacin. C) Photophobia is not a common side effect of ciprofloxacin; therefore, avoiding direct sunlight exposure is not necessary.

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