ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patient’s wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?
- A. Malignant cells contain more fibronectin than normal body cells.
- B. Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens.
- C. Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more durable and stable than those of normal cells.
- D. The nuclei of cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Malignant (cancer) cells often express tumor-specific antigens (TSAs), which are proteins or markers on the surface of cancer cells that are not found on normal cells. These antigens are produced due to genetic mutations in cancer cells and can sometimes be used to help the immune system recognize and attack cancerous cells. Tumor-specific antigens play a key role in cancer diagnosis, monitoring, and targeted therapies.
2. A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) about potential complications. Which complication should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Infection
- B. Hemorrhage
- C. Fatigue
- D. Splenomegaly
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. Patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) are at a significant risk of infection due to their compromised immune system. Emphasizing the importance of infection prevention and prompt treatment is crucial in the care of these patients. Choice B, Hemorrhage, is less common in CLL compared to other types of leukemia. Choice C, Fatigue, is a common symptom but not a complication that poses immediate risks. Choice D, Splenomegaly, is a common finding in CLL but not the most critical complication to emphasize regarding patient education.
3. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
- A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
- B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
- C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
- D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient struggling to breathe and the nurse’s rapid assessment reveals that the patient’s jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency?
- A. Increased intracranial pressure
- B. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
- C. Spinal cord compression
- D. Metastatic tumor of the neck
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein responsible for returning blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes obstructed or compressed, often due to a tumor, such as metastasized breast cancer. SVCS results in impaired venous drainage, leading to symptoms like distended jugular veins, facial swelling, difficulty breathing (dyspnea), and upper body edema. It is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention to restore blood flow and alleviate symptoms.
5. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
- B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
- C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
- D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.
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