Nursing Elites

1. An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated?

• A. Lymphokine-producing cells
• B. Cytotoxic T cells
• C. Helper T cells
• D. Macrophages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells are the key players in cell-mediated immunity as they directly attack cells displaying specific antigens. Lymphokine-producing cells (Choice A) are involved in cytokine production, while Helper T cells (Choice C) assist in activating other immune cells. Macrophages (Choice D) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, but they are not the primary cells responsible for directly attacking cells with specific antigens in cell-mediated immunity.

2. Which immunoglobulin is the first to appear in response to a new antigen?

• A. IgA
• B. IgG
• C. IgE
• D. IgM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to a new antigen. It is produced initially during the primary immune response. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is produced in a secondary immune response and is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the bloodstream. IgE is involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not the initial response to a new antigen.

3. What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?

• A. Anemia
• B. Recurrent infections
• C. Hypersensitivity
• D. Autoantibody production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.

4. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

5. A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?

• A. Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)
• B. Pentoxifylline (Pentoxil)
• C. Estazolam (ProSom)
• D. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.

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