ATI RN
ATI Nutrition
1. A client with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is being taught about diet. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase intake of dietary phosphorus.
- B. Eliminate foods high in protein from your diet.
- C. Reduce intake of foods high in potassium.
- D. Increase intake of sodium-containing foods.
Correct answer: C: "Reduce intake of foods high in potassium."
Rationale: In pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, reducing intake of foods high in potassium is crucial as impaired kidney function can lead to potassium buildup in the blood, which can be dangerous. High potassium levels can cause irregular heartbeats and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, advising the client to reduce potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing dietary phosphorus, eliminating foods high in protein, or increasing sodium-containing foods are not appropriate recommendations for a client with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease as they can exacerbate the condition.
2. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on performing a routine assessment of a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Apply a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted.
- B. Monitor ventilator settings every 8 hours.
- C. Document tube placement in centimeters at the angle of the jaw.
- D. Assess breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours is crucial in monitoring the client's respiratory status and identifying any potential complications promptly. Monitoring ventilator settings every 8 hours is important for overall ventilation management. Documenting the endotracheal tube placement accurately is essential to ensure proper positioning. Using a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted is not a recommended intervention as it can lead to complications and should be avoided.
3. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart over a 24- or 48-hour period?
- A. Holter monitor
- B. Electrocardiogram
- C. Stress test
- D. Chest X-ray
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Holter monitor. A Holter monitor is a portable device that continuously records the heart's electrical activity over 24 to 48 hours, aiding in the diagnosis of arrhythmias and other heart conditions. Choice B, an Electrocardiogram, provides a snapshot of the heart's electrical activity at a specific point in time, not over an extended period like a Holter monitor. Choice C, a Stress test, measures how the heart responds to physical activity and is not used for continuous monitoring of electrical activity. Choice D, a Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, not to measure the heart's electrical activity.
4. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Bisacodyl suppositories. Which of the following information should the provider include?
- A. Expect results within 15 to 60 minutes.
- B. Insert the suppository as directed by the healthcare provider.
- C. Keep the suppository at room temperature.
- D. Expect rectal burning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about Bisacodyl suppositories, it is important to include information about the common side effects. Rectal burning is a frequent side effect that can occur after using Bisacodyl suppositories, so the client should be informed to expect this discomfort. The onset of action for Bisacodyl suppositories is typically within 15 to 60 minutes, so the client should expect results relatively quickly, not in 6 to 12 hours. It is essential to follow the healthcare provider's instructions on how to insert the suppository correctly. Keeping the suppository at room temperature is sufficient; refrigeration is not required. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it addresses a common side effect and prepares the client for potential discomfort. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not focus on a significant side effect, proper administration, or storage requirements.
5. When conducting an initial feeding evaluation, the therapist asks the caregiver to bring the utensils, food, and high chair that they typically use. Which statement best reflects the therapist's reasoning for this?
- A. Using the child's actual materials will give the therapist an accurate picture
- B. The therapist wants to be sensitive to the child's culture
- C. The center has limited funds for food and materials
- D. The therapist would like to know if the caregiver can follow directions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: By having the caregiver bring the child's familiar utensils, food, and high chair, the therapist can observe the child's typical eating behaviors and challenges accurately. This provides valuable insights that help in tailoring appropriate interventions to address feeding issues effectively.
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