ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Anorexia
- D. Dysphagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.
2. What is the term for the body's ability to defend itself against specific invading agents such as bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign bodies?
- A. Hormones
- B. Secretion
- C. Immunity
- D. Glands
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Immunity. Immunity refers to the body's ability to protect itself against specific invading agents like bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign bodies by recognizing and destroying them. It is a crucial defense mechanism that helps maintain health and prevent infections and diseases. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormones are chemical messengers, secretion is the process of releasing substances, and glands are organs that produce and release substances, none of which specifically relate to the body's defense against invading agents.
3. How many liters are equal to 1800 ml?
- A. 1.8
- B. 18000
- C. 180
- D. 2800
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To convert milliliters (ml) to liters, divide by 1000 since 1 liter is equal to 1000 ml. Therefore, 1800 ml is equal to 1800/1000 = 1.8 liters. Choice A (1.8) is correct. Choice B (18000) is incorrect as it equates to 18000 liters, not 1.8 liters. Choice C (180) is incorrect as it represents 180 liters, not 1.8 liters. Choice D (2800) is incorrect as it does not reflect the conversion of 1800 ml to liters.
4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
5. When caring for a client on pressure support ventilation (PSV), which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of PSV?
- A. It keeps the alveoli open and prevents atelectasis.
- B. It allows preset pressure delivered during spontaneous ventilation.
- C. It guarantees minimal minute ventilator.
- D. It delivers a preset ventilatory rate and tidal volume to the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pressure support ventilation (PSV) is a mode that delivers a preset pressure when the client initiates a breath. This support helps the client to breathe spontaneously by reducing the work of breathing. The correct statement indicating an understanding of PSV is that it allows preset pressure to be delivered during spontaneous ventilation, as it assists the client's efforts without controlling the rate or volume of each breath.
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