Nursing Elites

1. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.

2. What is the best description of Back Care?

• A. Caring for the back by means of massage
• B. Washing the back
• C. Applying a cold compress to the back
• D. Applying a hot compress to the back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Caring for the back by means of massage. Back Care involves activities like massage, exercises, maintaining proper posture, and using ergonomic practices to keep the spine healthy and prevent injuries. While washing the back is a hygiene practice, applying cold or hot compresses may provide relief for back pain but do not encompass the comprehensive approach of back care like massage does.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

4. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

5. Which of the following actions will most likely lead to a break in the sterile technique for respiratory isolation?

• A. Opening the patient’s window to the outside environment
• B. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
• C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital corridor
• D. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Failure to wear gloves during a bed bath can potentially introduce pathogens, compromising the sterile technique necessary for respiratory isolation. Proper hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are crucial to prevent the transmission of infectious agents in such settings.

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