ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following techniques involves the sense of sight?
- A. Inspection
- B. Palpation
- C. Percussion
- D. Auscultation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Inspection (Choice A). Inspection is a technique that involves observing the patient using the sense of sight. During inspection, a healthcare provider visually examines the patient for any abnormalities, changes, or specific signs that may help in diagnosing a condition. Palpation (Choice B) involves using the sense of touch to feel for abnormalities. Percussion (Choice C) involves tapping the body to produce sounds that can help identify the underlying structures. Auscultation (Choice D) involves listening to sounds produced by the body, typically using a stethoscope. Therefore, in this context, the technique that specifically involves the sense of sight is Inspection.
2. Which of the following actions should be taken to use a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair?
- A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arms and lift
- B. Face the client, bend knees, and place hands on the client’s forearm and lift
- C. Spread the feet apart
- D. Tighten the pelvic muscles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spread the feet apart. When assisting a client to get up in a chair, it is crucial to use a wide base of support to maintain stability and prevent injuries. Spreading the feet apart provides a broader base, increasing balance and support for both the client and the caregiver. This position helps distribute the weight evenly and allows for better control when assisting the client in moving. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bending at the waist, placing arms under the client's arms, tightening pelvic muscles, or placing hands on the client's forearm do not provide the necessary wide base support needed for stability and safety during the transfer process.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
- B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
- C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
- D. A client who has dysphagia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?
- A. Confusion
- B. Pale skin
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.
5. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?
- A. Oxygen equipment
- B. Incentive spirometer
- C. Pulse oximeter
- D. Sterile dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.
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