Nursing Elites

1. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

2. In the emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client involved in a motor vehicle crash. Findings include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate 124/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.6 C (101.4 F), and SaO2 92% on room air. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain a chest X-ray.
• B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
• C. Administer oxygen via high-flow mask.
• D. Initiate IV access.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, including absent breath sounds, dyspnea, and a low SaO2 level. The priority action should be to improve oxygenation by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask. This intervention aims to increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs, helping to address the hypoxemia. Once oxygenation is optimized, further interventions, such as obtaining a chest X-ray, preparing for chest tube insertion, or initiating IV access, can be considered based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

• A. A client who has a BMI of 30
• B. A female client who is postmenopausal
• C. A client who has a fractured femur
• D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

4. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?

• A. Gender
• B. Environmental allergies
• C. Alcohol
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.

5. If a patient's blood pressure is 150/96, what is his pulse pressure?

• A. 54
• B. 96
• C. 150
• D. 246

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. In this case, the systolic pressure is 150 and the diastolic pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure is 150 - 96 = 54. Pulse pressure represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.

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