Nursing Elites

1. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

2. When administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client, for which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L.
• B. Apical pulse 58/min
• C. Digoxin level 1 ng/mL
• D. Constipation for 2 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring the digoxin level is crucial as it helps determine the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity. A digoxin level of 1 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range. However, levels above this range can lead to toxicity, causing adverse effects like nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should report a digoxin level of 1 ng/mL to the provider for further evaluation and potential dose adjustment.

3. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?

• A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
• B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
• C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
• D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.

4. Which of the following is not a cause of tachycardia?

• A. Fever
• B. Exercise
• C. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
• D. Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia is an increased heart rate, and it can be caused by various factors such as fever, exercise, and sympathetic nervous system stimulation, all of which tend to increase heart rate. However, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation typically slows the heart rate, making it the exception among the choices provided. Thus, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation is not a cause of tachycardia.

5. When is sterile technique used?

• A. During strict isolation procedures
• B. After terminal disinfection is performed
• C. For invasive procedures
• D. When protective isolation is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.

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