after 1 week of continuous mental confusion an elderly african american client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

1. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. An individual who has survived incest and is receiving treatment at the mental health clinic feels relief upon understanding that her anxiety and depression are:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is important to recognize that anxiety and depression are common responses to traumatic events like incest. Understanding that these feelings are normal reactions can help validate the individual's experiences and reduce stigma. By acknowledging that anxiety and depression are expected outcomes of posttraumatic events, the mental health clinic can provide appropriate support and treatment to help the survivor cope and heal. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it reflects a compassionate and informed approach to addressing the survivor's emotional struggles.

3. When interviewing a distressed client who was fired after 15 years of loyal employment, which of the following questions would best assist the nurse in determining the client's appraisal of the situation? Select the one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the nurse to help the client assess their coping mechanisms and perspective on the situation. Questions A and B focus on exploring the client's coping resources and past experiences to guide them towards effective stress management. Asking who is to blame (choice C) is not conducive to evaluating coping abilities; instead, it might elicit a blame-focused response, which can impede progress. Choice D, inquiring about the reason for being fired, is a nontherapeutic approach that does not promote a constructive appraisal of the situation.

4. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

5. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Paroxetine, an SSRI commonly prescribed for OCD, can lead to sexual dysfunction as a side effect. Patients should be educated about this potential adverse effect to ensure they are aware and can seek appropriate management if needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because insomnia, weight loss, and hypertension are not typically associated with paroxetine use as common side effects in patients with OCD.

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