after 1 week of continuous mental confusion an elderly african american client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

1. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

Correct answer: Dementia does not develop suddenly

Rationale:

2. In addition to antianxiety agents, which classification of drugs is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and anxiety disorders?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Antidepressants, especially selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), are frequently used in the treatment of anxiety disorders. These medications help alleviate symptoms by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain associated with mood regulation and anxiety.

3. Which intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting routine suicide screenings at senior centers is crucial in managing major depressive disorder in the older population. Screening helps identify individuals at risk, allows for timely intervention, and contributes to the overall well-being of older adults.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a manic episode, it is essential to provide a structured environment to help the client maintain stability. Encouraging rest periods is crucial as excessive activity during mania can lead to exhaustion. Setting limits on inappropriate behaviors helps ensure the client's safety and the safety of others. Allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities can exacerbate manic symptoms by further increasing their energy levels and impulsivity. This can lead to a worsening of the manic episode and potentially risky behaviors. Therefore, allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities is not an appropriate intervention during a manic episode.

5. A patient being treated for insomnia is prescribed ramelteon (Rozerem). Which comorbid mental health condition would make this medication the hypnotic of choice for this particular patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Substance use disorder. Ramelteon is preferred for patients with substance use disorder because it lacks abuse potential. This makes it a safer choice for individuals with a history of substance misuse. Choosing a medication with a lower risk of abuse in this population is crucial to prevent potential misuse or dependence issues.

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