after 1 week of continuous mental confusion an elderly african american client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

1. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife should indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief based on the statement 'Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.' In this statement, the client is acknowledging the difficulty of the relationship but also expressing personal growth and learning from the experience, indicating acceptance. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect the acceptance stage of grief. Choice A shows a sense of regret and a wish for things to have turned out differently. Choice B demonstrates lingering anger towards the ex-husband. Choice D suggests ongoing physical manifestations of grief like loss of appetite and weight loss, which are more indicative of earlier stages of grief.

3. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing severe anxiety?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a severe anxiety episode, it's crucial to stay with the patient and create a quiet environment. This approach helps reduce anxiety by providing a sense of safety and support. Encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings may not be effective during an acute episode of severe anxiety. Using a firm, authoritative approach can escalate the situation and worsen the anxiety. Suggesting distractions like watching TV may not address the root cause of the anxiety or provide the necessary support.

4. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

5. When assessing a client with suspected bipolar disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In bipolar disorder, common findings include periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and flight of ideas. Anhedonia, the inability to feel pleasure, is more indicative of conditions like major depressive disorder. Therefore, the nurse should not expect to find anhedonia in a client with suspected bipolar disorder.

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