after 1 week of continuous mental confusion an elderly african american client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

1. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking about the content of the voices helps understand the patient's experience and assess risk.

3. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

4. A nurse is assessing a patient with schizophrenia who is experiencing delusions. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention when assessing a patient with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to engage the patient in reality-based activities. This intervention helps distract the patient from the delusions and reorients them to the present, promoting grounding in reality. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with delusions can reinforce them and hinder treatment. Choice B may exacerbate the delusions by delving deeper into their basis. Choice D may not be beneficial as it focuses solely on the delusions without addressing the need to ground the patient in reality.

5. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

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