Nursing Elites

1. Tomas is a 21-year-old male with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia. Tomas's nurse recognizes that self-medicating with excessive alcohol is common in this disease and can co-occur along with:

• A. Generally good health despite the mental illness.
• B. An aversion to drinking fluids.
• C. Anxiety and depression.
• D. The ability to express his needs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with schizophrenia often turn to excessive alcohol consumption as a way to manage symptoms of anxiety and depression. This maladaptive coping mechanism can exacerbate the challenges associated with schizophrenia and may hinder effective treatment outcomes. Recognizing the presence of anxiety and depression alongside alcohol abuse is crucial for providing holistic care and support to individuals with schizophrenia.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
• B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
• C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
• D. The client shows no change in behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, identifying and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of the treatment process. This cognitive restructuring helps individuals with major depressive disorder to develop healthier thinking patterns and cope more effectively with their emotions, which ultimately leads to improvement in their mental health. Therefore, when a client is able to identify and challenge negative thoughts, it indicates that they are actively engaging in the therapeutic process and making progress towards better mental well-being.

3. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Family therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.

4. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

5. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the education provided about the antidepressant medication sertraline (Zoloft)?

• A. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I can stop taking this medication when I feel better.
• D. I should avoid taking this medication with other medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. It is crucial for clients to understand that sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to show its full effects. Patients should be informed about this delay in onset of action to set realistic expectations and adhere to the treatment plan. This education helps prevent premature discontinuation of the medication due to perceived lack of efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because sertraline (Zoloft) should be taken with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Choice D is inaccurate as there are specific medications that should be avoided with sertraline, but a general statement to avoid all other medications is overly broad and not necessary.

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