a woman who plans to become pregnant wants to try to prevent neural tube defects in her baby by following a healthy diet which nutrient is most closel a woman who plans to become pregnant wants to try to prevent neural tube defects in her baby by following a healthy diet which nutrient is most closel
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ATI RN

ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023

1. Which nutrient is most closely associated with the prevention of neural tube defects in a developing fetus for a woman planning to become pregnant?

Correct answer: B: Folate

Rationale: The correct answer is folate. Folate, also known as Vitamin B9, is vital for the prevention of neural tube defects in the developing fetus. It is primarily responsible for the creation and repair of DNA, which is essential during rapid growth stages such as pregnancy. While nutrients like calcium, vitamin A, and choline are important for pregnancy, they are not as directly linked to preventing neural tube defects as folate. Calcium is crucial for the baby's bone and teeth development. Vitamin A is essential for vision, immune function, and cellular growth. Choline supports brain development and neural functioning. However, none of these nutrients have the same direct impact on preventing neural tube defects as folate.

2. During the second trimester, a white, cheeselike substance called __________ emerges on the skin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the second trimester of pregnancy, a white, cheeselike substance called vernix emerges on the skin of the developing fetus. Vernix is a protective layer that helps prevent the skin from becoming waterlogged during the time in the amniotic fluid. Choice A, lanugo, is incorrect as lanugo refers to the fine, soft hair that covers the body of a fetus. Choice B, corpus luteum, is incorrect as it is a temporary endocrine structure involved in the menstrual cycle. Choice D, chorion, is incorrect as it is one of the membranes that surround the embryo and later the fetus.

3. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the patient's intravenous therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests BEST reflects hydration status?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematocrit is the best indicator of hydration status because it reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. An increased hematocrit indicates dehydration, as the blood becomes more concentrated due to fluid loss. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Choice A) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation, not hydration status. White blood cell count (Choice B) is an indicator of infection or inflammation. Serum glucose (Choice D) is used to monitor blood sugar levels, not hydration status.

4. What is a surgical procedure to replace a damaged or diseased heart valve with a prosthetic valve?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valve replacement is the correct answer because it involves replacing a damaged or diseased heart valve with a prosthetic valve. This procedure is essential for improving blood flow and heart function. Angioplasty (choice B) is a procedure to widen narrowed or obstructed arteries. Stent placement (choice C) involves inserting a mesh tube to help support weak arteries. Bypass surgery (choice D) is a procedure to create new routes for blood flow when arteries are blocked.

5. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

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