Nursing Elites

1. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?

• A. Does your son experience nausea or vomiting when he has a headache?
• B. Does your son have a history of recent head injury?
• C. Does your son become sensitive to light when he has a headache?
• D. Does anyone in your family have a history of migraines?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking about a history of recent head injury is less likely to yield data relevant to confirming or ruling out migraines. Migraines are often associated with symptoms like nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a family history of migraines. While head injuries can cause headaches, the focus of the assessment in this case should be on symptoms more specific to migraines to guide the diagnosis and management.

2. A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?

• A. “I will report to the doctor if I have a slow heart rate.”
• B. “The medicine will leave a bitter or metallic taste in my mouth.”
• C. “I will report urinary urgency and incontinence.”
• D. “The medication is given in two doses every day.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.

3. A 70-year-old patient is seen in the family practice clinic. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to prevent shingles?

• A. Zoster vaccine
• B. Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine
• C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
• D. Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zoster vaccine. The Zoster vaccine is recommended for the prevention of shingles in individuals aged 50 years and older. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. The vaccine helps reduce the risk of developing shingles and decreases the severity and duration of the illness if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is used to prevent HPV infections that can lead to cervical cancer and other cancers, and Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine is used to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.

4. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

5. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Crohn's disease
• C. Irritable bowel syndrome
• D. Colon cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.

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