ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. After a walk-in client enters the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea, the nurse takes the client’s vital signs. What phase of the nursing process is being implemented by the nurse?
- A. Assessment
- B. Diagnosis
- C. Planning
- D. Implementation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is performing the assessment phase of the nursing process. Assessment involves collecting data, which includes obtaining vital signs, to identify the client's health status and needs. This step is crucial for the nurse to gather information that will guide further decision-making in the nursing process. Choice B, 'Diagnosis,' would involve analyzing the collected data to identify the client's health problems. Choice C, 'Planning,' would be developing a plan of care based on the assessment findings. Choice D, 'Implementation,' is the phase where the nurse carries out the plan of care developed during the planning phase.
2. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
- A. Alkalosis and hyperventilation
- B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
- C. Alkalosis and high potassium
- D. Elevated sodium and acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, hypoxemia (low blood oxygen) and hypercapnia (high blood carbon dioxide) are commonly observed. Choice A is incorrect because alkalosis (high pH) and hyperventilation are not typically seen in acute respiratory failure. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions alkalosis and high potassium, which are not characteristic of acute respiratory failure. Choice D is also incorrect because elevated sodium and acidosis are not typically associated with acute respiratory failure.
3. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.
4. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Coagulative necrosis
- B. Liquefactive necrosis
- C. Caseous necrosis
- D. Autonecrosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with a history of atherosclerosis and notes elevated cholesterol levels. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse should plan follow-up instruction on a low-cholesterol diet?
- A. ''I take an omega-3 supplement daily.''
- B. ''I cook my food with canola oil.''
- C. ''I eat three eggs for breakfast each morning.''
- D. ''I flavor my meat with lemon juice.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating three eggs daily increases cholesterol intake, which could exacerbate atherosclerosis. Choice A is incorrect because taking an omega-3 supplement can actually help reduce cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect as canola oil is a healthier choice compared to saturated fats. Choice D is incorrect since flavoring meat with lemon juice does not significantly impact cholesterol levels.