a nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks gestation is in active labor and has ruptured membrane which of the following actions should the nur
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam

1. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes is being cared for by a nurse. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client in active labor with ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This helps monitor the well-being of the fetus during labor and delivery, enabling timely interventions if any fetal distress is detected. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter may be required in some cases, but it is not the priority in the given scenario. Fundal massage is typically done after delivery to help the uterus contract and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion may be indicated to augment labor, but it is not the initial action needed in this situation.

2. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.

3. A client is to receive thrombolytic therapy. Which of the following factors should be recognized as a contraindication to the therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots. Hip arthroplasty (joint replacement surgery) performed recently is a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Elevated sedimentation rate, exercise-induced asthma, and elevated platelet count are not contraindications to thrombolytic therapy.

4. A client has left homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with left homonymous hemianopsia, there is a loss of vision on the right side of both eyes. Placing the bedside table on the right side of the bed ensures that essential items are within the client's field of vision, minimizing the risk of injury or accidents. Teaching the client to scan to the right and orienting them using the clock method may be helpful strategies, but placing the bedside table on the right side of the bed is a more direct and immediate intervention to enhance the client's safety and independence.

5. During a seizure, what is the primary intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary intervention during a seizure is to protect the patient from injury. This involves creating a safe environment by moving harmful objects away, cushioning the head, and staying with the patient until the seizure ends. Inserting an airway is only necessary if the patient's airway is obstructed, not routinely during a seizure. Elevating the head of the bed is not a priority during an active seizure as it won't affect the seizure's outcome. Withdrawing all pain medications is not a standard practice unless there are specific contraindications related to the seizure itself.

Similar Questions

A client is in a seclusion room following violent behavior and continues to display aggressive behavior. What action should the nurse take?
What should be done in order to prevent contamination of the environment when making a bed?
The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:
Which pulse's absence may not be a significant finding when a patient is admitted to the hospital?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses